追问一下,有xdjm问过,就是没人给个说法,哈哈! Seventeenth-century philosopher John Locke stated that as much as Line 99 percent of the value of (5) any useful product can be attributed to “the effects of labor.” For Locke’s intellec- tual heirs it was only a short step to the “labor theory of (10) value,” whose formulators held that 100 percent of the value of any product is gen- erated by labor (the human work needed to produce (15) goods) and that therefore the employer who appropriates any part of the product’s value as profit is practicing theft. (20) Although human effort is required to produce goods for the consumer market, effort is also invested in making capital goods (tools, (25) machines, etc.), which are used to facilitate the produc- tion of consumer goods. In modern economies about one-third of the total output of (30) consumer goods is attribut- able to the use of capital goods. Approximately two- thirds of the income derived from this total output is paid (35) out to workers as wages and salaries, the remaining third serving as compensation to the owners of the capital goods. Moreover, part (40) of this remaining third is received by workers who are shareholders, pension beneficiaries, and the like. The labor theory of value (45) systematically disregards the productive contribution of capital goods—a failing for which Locke must bear part of the blame. Q8: The author of the passage is primarily concerned with - criticizing Locke’s economic theories
- discounting the contribution of labor in a modern economy
- questioning the validity of the labor theory of value
- arguing for a more equitable distribution of business profits
- contending that employers are overcompensated for capital goods
我也选A, 根据最后一句,bear part of the blame. 请xdjm给指点一下从那里可以看出对the labor theory of value 的正确性有质疑!
[此贴子已经被作者于2007-8-23 19:34:27编辑过] |