请教Og 12-92

bubumouse

In the country of Veltria, the past two years' broad economic recession has included abusiness downturn in the clothing trade, where sales are down by about 7 percent as compared to two years ago. Clothing wholesalers have found, however, that the proportion of credit extended to retailers that was paid off on time fell sharply in the first year of the recesssion but returned to its prerecession lever in the second year.

which of the following, if true, most helps to explain the change between the first and the second year of the recession in the proportion of credit not paid on time?

a .the total amount of credit extended to retailers by clothing wholesalers increased between the first year of the recesssion and the second year.

b. between the first and second years of the recession, clothing retailers in Veltria saw many of their costs, rent and utilities in particular, increase.

c. of the considerable number of clothing retailers in Veltria who were having financial difficulties before the start of the recession, virtually all were forced to go out of business during its first year.

d.clothing retailers in Veltria attempted to stimulate sales in the second year of the recession by discounting merchandise.

e relatively recession-proof segments of the clothing trade, such as work cloths, did not suffer any decrease in sales during the first year of the recession.

zliycwn1

我觉得题目没说清楚啊...

C的意思是说因为一些人因为没钱还就go out of business，（相当于清理门户...）所以第二年不算这些人，按时还钱率就高了。

这样说起来第一年不还钱的人跑了这部分钱就不算credit了。。。哪有这样的算法...

bubumouse

回2楼 我觉得用排除法能选出C来 但是我觉得C这个答案很奇怪

zliycwn1

我选的是A

proportion of credit应该说的是还贷率吧

如果基数增加了，坏账总数不变那比例就减小了

难道我题意理解的不对？

bubumouse

楼上，如果基数增加了，坏账总数不变那比例就减小了

题里的是坏账的比例，基数增加了，可是A里面没有假设坏账总数不变，所以没法说明坏账比例降低。

我似乎理解C了：C说是那些欠着帐的都是经济有问题的第一年都倒了，第二年剩下的是经济没问题的，所以按时还账率高了。大概是第二年除去了不良企业，所以按时还账了

zliycwn1

倒了就不用还账么？

bubumouse

倒了还不还和题目没关系

文章中的是按时还款的比率。 它们倒了的已经不按时了，倒了以后再还仍然是不按时

stucash

LZ是中了GMAC的计了。这是GMAC使用的典型心理计策。所以说要注意GMAC给出的limiting words；此题中，就是on time。

如果只是讨论第一年和第二年按时还款率的改变，那么C选项足够了。不用考虑从是否能还上，也许只是晚还了，那也算没按时还；C暗示了晚还和不还的都被扫除了，那剩下的人就都是能“按时”还款的。

假设衰退之前大部人都能还，一小撮人还不上；那C=O/T-F没问题；

进入衰退第一年，一小撮牺牲了（F），还加上一些之前勉强能按时还的也牺牲了(F1)；至此，O变小，T不变，F不变，则：
C1=O-F1/T-F-F1

进入衰退第二年，不能按时还的都牺牲了，就剩下能按时还的了。并不是说O=T了，因为C选项暗示了在衰退之前就有人还不了，我们也应该在第二年进行相当的假设，即又有一小撮没按时还；
至此，C2=O2/T-F2

因此，第二年按时还款率回到了衰退之前的状态。

当然，这只是举例而已。纰漏是肯定有的。大概的过程知道就OK。

希望能帮到你。

橘树圣诞节

顶楼上！
我也刚在郁闷这题，唉！

橘树圣诞节

该死的GMAC！
妈的弄个倒闭的了东西在这碍眼