GWD 21-Q7---疑惑中...求助

maggiecookies

GWD 21-Q7 to Q9:

 

 

Seventeenth-century philosopher John Locke stated that as much as 99 percent of the value of any useful product can be attributed to “the effects of labor.”  For Locke’s intellectual heirs it was only a short step to the “labor theory of value,” whose formulators held that 100 percent of the value of any product is generated by labor (the human work needed to produce goods) and that therefore the employer who appropriates any part of the product’s value as profit is practicing theft.

      Although human effort is required to produce goods for the consumer market, effort is also invested in making capital goods (tools, machines, etc.), which are used to facilitate the production of consumer goods.  In modern economies about one-third of the total output of consumer goods is attributable to the use of capital goods.  Approximately two-thirds of the income derived from this total output is paid out to workers as wages and salaries, the remaining third serving as compensation to the owners of the capital goods.  Moreover, part of this remaining third is received by workers who are shareholders, pension beneficiaries, and the like. The labor theory of value systematically disregards the productive contribution of capital goods—a failing for which Locke must bear part of the of the blame.

Q7:

According to the author of the passage, which of the following is true of the distribution of the income derived from the total output of consumer goods in a modern economy?

A.      Workers receive a share of this income that is significantly smaller than the value of their labor as a contribution to total output.

B.       Owners of capital goods receive a share of this income that is significantly greater than the contribution to total output attributable to the use of capital goods.

C.      Owners of capital goods receive a share of this income that is no greater than the proportion of total output attributable to the use of capital goods.

D.      Owners of capital goods are not fully compensated for their investment because they pay out most of their share of this income to workers as wages and benefits.

E.       Workers receive a share of this income that is greater than the value of their labor because the labor theory of value overestimates their contribution to total output.

答案是C, 可是我觉得A 也对啊..  帮忙解释一下好吗?

 

 

 

 

 

 

[此贴子已经被作者于2008-9-8 11:19:53编辑过]

maggiecookies

顶一下.. 麻烦好心人帮我看一下

wangstriking

A在文中没有提到，所以不选

rockmax

In modern economies about one-third of the total output of consumer goods is attributable to the use of

capital goods.  Approximately two-thirds of the income derived from this total output is paid out to

workers as wages and salaries, the remaining third serving as compensation to the owners of the capital goods.

总产出中有1/3 来自于capital goods

总收入的   2/3 付给 workers

省下收入的1/3  付给   owner of capital goods. 

 

 

 

è        capital goods 的收入比例  不大于  其 投入比例.

                                             No great than

[此贴子已经被作者于2008-10-14 10:55:46编辑过]

rockmax

Q8:

The author of the passage is primarily concerned with

A.     criticizing Locke’s economic theories

B.       discounting the contribution of labor in a modern economy

C.      questioning the validity of the labor theory of value

D.      arguing for a more equitable distribution of business profits

E.       contending that employers are overcompensated for capital goods

我选错了, 应该是最后一句话:TS

The labor theory of value systematically disregards the productive contribution of capital goods—a failing for which Locke must bear part of the blame.

The labor theory of value systematically disregards the productive contribution of capital goods—a failing for which Locke must bear part of the blame.

zuozuox

Q7中E为什么不对？

junezm

同楼上问，E为什么不对呢？

goafterdream

同问E选项

Catherine0301

E选项说WORKERS得到的比付出的labor多，然而，文中说总产出的1/3来自capital goods，那么剩下的2/3就是来自labor的，而worker得到的是2/3，因此得到与付出同等，所以不是greater.

典座

说一下自己的思路，供后续讨论。
这道题主要要看懂这段话（做题多的话读文章的时候就应该知道这段话必出题，虽然我一开始也错了|||）——
1）.In modern economies about one-third of the total output of consumer goods is attributable to the use of capital goods.
2）.Approximately two-thirds of the income derived from this total output is paid out to workers as wages and salaries, the remaining third serving as compensation to the owners of the capital goods.
3). Moreover, part of this remaining third is received by workers who are shareholders, pension beneficiaries, and the like.

一条一条解释。
1.得出 Total output=⅓ capital goods+ ⅔其他（not mention，推出是for labor的部分）
2.得出 income(from this output)= ⅔ wages + ⅓ capital goods的拥有者
3. ⅓ capital goods的拥有者包括股东，津贴受益人一类。

A：workers receive a share看到这就能排除了，因为根本没讨论过给员工股份的事。只有提到过worker received the wages and salaries。
B：（第二条）⅓ capital goods的拥有者＞（第一条）⅓ capital goods， 错，他俩都是⅓，没有谁比谁大一说
C：（第二条）⅓ capital goods的拥有者≤（第一条）⅓ capital goods， 道理同上，correct
D：这里没有讨论过capital goods的拥有者是否被充分补偿（我的垃圾翻译你们懂就好）
E：workers receive a share，同A，没有讨论过这个就。如果按ls说的可以看成worker（不是特指收到股份的员工，泛指所有员工），（第二条）income 的⅔ wages＞（第一条）output的⅔ 其他（labor），还是错，因为都是⅔。