GWD21-7 似乎没人问过

谢沁薇

Q7 to Q9:

      Seventeenth-century

       philosopher John Locke

       stated that as much as

Line       99 percent of the value of

  (5)      any useful product can be

attributed to “the effects of

labor.”  For Locke’s intellec-

tual heirs it was only a short

step to the “labor theory of

 (10)      value,” whose formulators

held that 100 percent of the

value of any product is gen-

erated by labor (the human

work needed to produce

 (15)      goods) and that therefore the

employer who appropriates

any part of the product’s

value as profit is practicing

theft.

 (20)            Although human effort is

       required to produce goods

       for the consumer market,

effort is also invested in

making capital goods (tools,

 (25)      machines, etc.), which are

used to facilitate the produc-

tion of consumer goods.  In

modern economies about

one-third of the total output of

 (30)      consumer goods is attribut-

able to the use of capital

goods.  Approximately two-

       thirds of the income derived

from this total output is paid

 (35)
                       out to workers as wages and

salaries, the remaining third

serving as compensation

to the owners of the capital

      goods.  Moreover, part

 (40)     of this remaining third is

received by workers who

are shareholders, pension

beneficiaries, and the like.

The labor theory of value

 (45)      systematically disregards

the productive contribution of

capital goods—a failing for

which Locke must bear part

of the blame.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q7:

According to the author of the passage, which of the following is true of the distribution of the income derived from the total output of consumer goods in a modern economy?

             

1. Workers receive a share of this income that is significantly smaller than the value of their labor as a contribution to total output.
2. Owners of capital goods receive a share of this income that is significantly greater than the contribution to total output attributable to the use of capital goods.
3. Owners of capital goods receive a share of this income that is no greater than the proportion of total output attributable to the use of capital goods.
4. Owners of capital goods are not fully compensated for their investment because they pay out most of their share of this income to workers as wages and benefits.
5. Workers receive a share of this income that is greater than the value of their labor because the labor theory of value overestimates their contribution to total output.

答案是C 但小女子强烈，相当觉得 应该为D!

大家呢？^-^

谢沁薇

小顶下

vicomte

以下是引用谢沁薇在2006-5-31 16:05:00的发言：

Q7 to Q9:

      Seventeenth-century

       philosopher John Locke

       stated that as much as

Line       99 percent of the value of

  (5)      any useful product can be

attributed to “the effects of

labor.”  For Locke’s intellec-

tual heirs it was only a short

step to the “labor theory of

 (10)      value,” whose formulators

held that 100 percent of the

value of any product is gen-

erated by labor (the human

work needed to produce

 (15)      goods) and that therefore the

employer who appropriates

any part of the product’s

value as profit is practicing

theft.

 (20)            Although human effort is

       required to produce goods

       for the consumer market,

effort is also invested in

making capital goods (tools,

 (25)      machines, etc.), which are

used to facilitate the produc-

tion of consumer goods.  In

modern economies about

one-third of the total output of

 (30)      consumer goods is attribut-

able to the use of capital

goods.  Approximately two-

       thirds of the income derived

from this total output is paid

 (35)
        out to workers as wages and

salaries, the remaining third

serving as compensation

to the owners of the capital

      goods.  Moreover, part

 (40)     of this remaining third is

received by workers who

are shareholders, pension

beneficiaries, and the like.

The labor theory of value

 (45)      systematically disregards

the productive contribution of

capital goods—a failing for

which Locke must bear part

of the blame.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q7:

According to the author of the passage, which of the following is true of the distribution of the income derived from the total output of consumer goods in a modern economy?

             

1. Workers receive a share of this income that is significantly smaller than the value of their labor as a contribution to total output.
2. Owners of capital goods receive a share of this income that is significantly greater than the contribution to total output attributable to the use of capital goods.
3. Owners of capital goods receive a share of this income that is no greater than the proportion of total output attributable to the use of capital goods.
4. Owners of capital goods are not fully compensated for their investment because they pay out most of their share of this income to workers as wages and benefits.
5. Workers receive a share of this income that is greater than the value of their labor because the labor theory of value overestimates their contribution to total output.

答案是C 但小女子强烈，相当觉得 应该为D!

大家呢？^-^

应该是C吧，

C: Owners of capital goods receive a share of this income(最多1/3，因为还有一些给了是股东的工人 etc.) that is no greater than the proportion of total output attributable to the use of capital goods.(1/3)

所以前者小于等于后者，也就是no greater than

D: Owners of capital goods are not fully compensated for their investment because they pay out most of their share of this income(就是C的前半句)  to workers as wages and benefits.

很明显曲解了原文，并不是owner income的1/3中大部分用来支付工人工资，而是总收入的2/3。

谢沁薇

wu wu ... 我看看哈 先谢谢

谢沁薇

alright 那么我想再问一下下的是：他用1/3的 the total output  与  1/3 的 the income derived

from this total output 比，这样行么？ 怎么理解呢？

感谢你哈6_6

vicomte

以下是引用谢沁薇在2006-6-1 15:17:00的发言：
alright 那么我想再问一下下的是：他用1/3的 the total output  与  1/3 的 the income derived

from this total output 比，这样行么？ 怎么理解呢？

感谢你哈6_6

C选项只是比较了两个数字，share跟proportion。

前者小于等于1/3,而后者等于1/3

如果按你说的“他用1/3的 the total output  与  1/3 的 the income derived
   from this total output 比”，就没有意义了，因为两者单位不一样，但是C说的是两个比例之间的比较，所以就make sense了。

而且no greater than也说明是数字之间的比较，忘记og语法的哪个题说过，否则就是no more than了。

[此贴子已经被作者于2006-6-1 17:58:13编辑过]

谢沁薇

got it 谢谢！

hwhhs

..

lxzjojo

up

加拿大帅哥