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新OG2016,27题关于being时态获取的问题

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楼主
发表于 2015-7-30 23:49:01 | 只看该作者 回帖奖励 |倒序浏览 |阅读模式
27对C的官方解释如下,being难道不是从前面一句的had been adapted承接了过去完成时态么,为什么OG说这里的being被当做现在时,无法解释earlier 17th?


27. In the seventh century B.C., the Roman alphabet was adapted from the Etruscan
alphabet, which in turn had been adapted in the previous century from a western
Greek alphabet, which itself had been adapted earlier in the same century from the
Phoenician alphabet.
(A) which itself had been adapted earlier
(B) adapting itself earlier
(C) itself being adapted earlier
(D) having been earlier adapted itself
(E) earlier itself having been adapted
Rhetorical construction; Verb form; Logical predication
This sentence describes a string of adaptations of the alphabet, tracing back from
the seventh century BC through two points in the eighth century BC. Because the
latest of the three adaptations is temporally located in past tense, earlier
adaptations should be located in the past perfect tense.
A Correct. This sentence is properly constructed and uses the appropriate
verb forms for the relationships among the events that it describes.
B It is unclear what the participial phrase adapting itself earlier . . . refers to.
The present participle could be used for an event that was simultaneous
with, or part of, the event mentioned before the underlined portion.
However, it is inappropriate for describing an event that took place even
earlier than the seventh century BC, which has already been designated in
the sentence as past tense. The reflexive form adapting itself is nonsensical
in this sentence.
C The present tense of the reflexive participial phrase is inappropriate for
describing an event prior to the seventh century BC, given that the seventh
century BC has already been designated in the sentence as past tense.
D Without commas around itself, the pronoun appears to be reflexive. The
combination of passive and reflexive then makes no sense. If itself is
intended simply for emphasis, rather than as a reflexive pronoun, it would
be preferable, in this context, to set it off with commas. But if it were
intended in that way, it would seem to refer to the Roman alphabet, and the
claim made in the sentence would be confusing and nearly nonsensical. This
modifier is confusingly placed before the designation of time (in the same
century) and source (from the Phoenician alphabet).
E The adverb earlier is misplaced before the pronoun itself; it should be
immediately before the phrase in the same century.

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沙发
发表于 2015-8-4 22:16:09 | 只看该作者
我认为若把 itself being adapted earlier当做同位语的话,那么修饰的应该是主句,(意思上一致性)。然而第一个which的从句作为modifier出现, itself being adapted earlier就不会和他的had done时态一直,而是主句,但是主句是过去时啊,为什么og说present tense? 求nn们解释,多谢!
板凳
发表于 2015-8-4 22:24:54 | 只看该作者
OG解释知识说这是个现在分词,用在17世纪之前是不合适的. 这里有时间顺序的. 17世纪用的是过去时,那么如果在强调时间顺序的时候,在它之前发生的就应该用过去完成时.
地板
发表于 2015-8-4 22:26:49 | 只看该作者
zyypanda 发表于 2015-8-4 22:24
OG解释知识说这是个现在分词,用在17世纪之前是不合适的. 这里有时间顺序的. 17世纪用的是过去时,那么如果在 ...

我以为present tense 是现在时,present participle是现在分词?
5#
发表于 2015-8-4 22:53:27 | 只看该作者
catherine27629 发表于 2015-8-4 22:26
我以为present tense 是现在时,present participle是现在分词?

承接前句时态应该是指现在分词做状语的时候吧。这里是做定语。定语通常不用分词being和have being.
6#
发表于 2015-8-4 22:55:02 | 只看该作者
zyypanda 发表于 2015-8-4 22:53
承接前句时态应该是指现在分词做状语的时候吧。这里是做定语。定语通常不用分词being和have being. ...

同意!               
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