lsat-9-1-22

icyeye

22. For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century, when many feudal institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared.

The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims?

(A) To say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of a nobility is to employ a definition that distorts history.

(B) Prior to the twelfth century, the institution of European feudalism functioned without the presence of a dominant class.

(C) The fact that a societal group has a distinct legal status is not in itself sufficient to allow that group to be properly considered a social class.

(D) The decline of feudalism in Europe was the only cause of the rise of a European nobility.

(a)

(E) The prior existence of feudal institutions is a prerequisite for the emergence of a nobility, as defined in the strictest sense of the term.

我选了c。请牛牛解释一下，这题的思路在那里？

Pudding

不是牛牛 (差的遠了...)

試著說說我的想法:

封建制度的存在預先假設了貴族制度的存在 --> writers以此命名了封建制度, 可是事實上, 貴族制度是直到12世紀才出現的 (在此之前都只是現象並非制度), 因此說"封建制度"這個定義需要以貴族制度的存在為基礎是扭曲歷史的 --> A

C, 我覺得好像反了吧, 題目說的應該是後者is not sufficient to allow前者...

c_violet2000

原文中a noble class-->both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law.

C中,    a societal group has a distinct legal status  推不出          group to be properly considered a social class.

原文noble一选项social,可以判断为无关
                                                                                      

[此贴子已经被作者于2005-5-25 10:48:45编辑过]

ypngzhang

哪个NN帮忙解释一下这道题？多谢！！

看了讨论，仍然不明白。

ssssss

22. For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century, when many feudal institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared.

This is an inference kind of question. Most likely in this kind of question there is no argument but information. Then you have well understood the information to choose the right answer. You will have to inference the answer from that information.

First we analysis the information at stimulus:

We can find 2 conditional statements in the stimulus:

1.      feudalism ----à Noble class

2.      Noble class -----à title and inheritance

The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims?

(A) To say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of nobility is to employ a definition that distorts history.

No where in the stimulus mention about distort history, this is out of scope.

(B) Prior to the twelfth century, the institution of European feudalism functioned without the presence of a dominant class.

Can not infer this from stimulus.

(C) The fact that a societal group has a distinct legal status is not in itself sufficient to allow that group to be properly considered a social class.

This is right. All the information from stimulus suggests that feudalism existed in Europe without the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility. This answer explains it in a very abstract way which makes it hard to understand.

(D) The decline of feudalism in Europe was the only cause of the rise of a European nobility.

Out of scope

(E) The prior existence of feudal institutions is a prerequisite for the emergence of a nobility, as defined in the strictest sense of the term.

Out of scope

mengyou2

For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed (assumed in advance) the existence of a noble class. But this assumption is problematic according to the real history (because "Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century, when many feudal institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared." That is, one element is missing)