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Personal POV:
Pay close attention to the diction adopted before and in the B.F. portion--it says the former reasoning "might" be overoptimistic since some executives "have been known to" buy shares in their own company. So the B.F. portion, from my point of view, can't be an explanation(explanation should be 100 percent sufficient in proving the accuracy of something) that could be established, rather it serves at most an assumption that can be used to support the author's hypothetical conclusion--the former reasoning might be wrong.
What's more, the second statement has not explained the why those bank top executives' buying of their own banks' share, rather it explained why the reasoning followed by those banks' behavior might be wrong. |
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