【原创分享】从OG中寻找GMAC的出题思路与相应解题步骤

Krystalke

Xiexielouzhu

小祝就是我

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现象解释        D1 According to economic signaling theory, consumers may perceive the frequency with which an unfamiliar brand is advertised as a cue that the brand is of high quality. The notion that (5) highly advertised brands are associated with high-quality products does have some empirical support. Marquardt and McGann found that heavily advertised products did indeed rank high on certain measures of product quality. Because (10) large advertising expenditures represent a significant investment on the part of a manufacturer, only companies that expect to recoup these costs in the long run, through consumers' repeat purchases of the product, (15) can afford to spend such amounts. However, two studies by Kirmani have found that although consumers initially perceive expensive advertising as a signal of high brand quality, at some level of spending the manufacturer's (20) advertising effort may be perceived as unreasonably high, implying low manufacturer confidence in product quality. If consumers perceive excessive advertising effort as a sign of a manufacturer's desperation, the result may be less favorable (25) brand perceptions. In addition, a third study by Kirmani, of print advertisements, found that the use of color affected consumer perception of brand quality. Because consumers recognize that color advertisements are more expensive than (30) black and white, the point at which repetition of an advertisement is perceived as excessive comes sooner for a color advertisement than for a black and- white advertisement.          "1.Which of the following best describes the purpose of the sentence in lines 10-15 ?
(A) To show that economic signalingtheory fails to explain a finding
(B) To introduce a distinction not accounted for by economic signaling theory
(C) To account for an exception to a generalization suggested by Marquardt and McGann
(D) To explain why Marquardt and McGann's
research was conducted
(E) To offer an explanation for an observation
reported by Marquardt and McGann
"        "2.The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) present findings that contradict one explanation for the effects of a particular advertising practice
(B) argue that theoretical explanations about the
effects of a particular advertising practice are
of limited value without empirical evidence
(C) discuss how and why particular advertising
practices may affect consumers' perceptions
(D) contrast the research methods used in two
different studies of a particularadvertising
practice
(E) explain why a finding about consumer responses
to a particular advertising practice was
unexpected"        "3.Kirmani's research, as described in the passage,
suggests which of the following regarding consumers'
expectations about the quality of advertised products?
(A) Those expectations are likely to be highest if a
manufacturer runs both black-and-white and
color advertisements for the same product.
(B) Those expectations can be shaped by the
presence of color in an advertisement as well as
by the frequency with which an advertisement
appears.
(C) Those expectations are usually high for
frequently advertised new brands but not for
frequently advertised familiar brands.
(D) Those expectations are likely to be higher for
products whose black-and-white advertisements
are often repeated than for those whose color
advertisements are less often repeated.
(E) Those expectations are less definitively shaped
bythe manufacturer's advertisements than by
information that consumers gather from other
sources."        "4.Kirmani's third study, as described in the passage,
suggests which of the following conclusions about a
black-and-white advertisement?
(A) It can be repeated more frequently than a
comparable color advertisement could before
consumers begin to suspect low manufacturer
confidence in the quality of the advertised
product.
(B) It will have the greatest impact on consumers'
perceptions of the quality of the advertised
product if it appears during periods when a color
version of the same advertisement is also being
used.
(C) It will attract more attention from readers of the
print publication in which it appears if it is used
only a few times.
(D) It may be perceived by some consumers as
more expensive than a comparable color
advertisement.
(E) It is likely to be perceived by consumers as a
sign of higher manufacturer confidence in the
quality of the advertised product than a
comparable color advertisement would be."        "5.The passage suggests that Kirmani would be most
likely to agree with which of the following statements
about consumers' perceptions of the relationship
between the frequency with which a product is
advertised and the product's quality?
(A) Consumers' perceptions about the frequency
with which an advertisement appears are their
primary consideration when evaluating an
advertisement's claims about productquality.
(B) Because most consumers do not notice the
frequency of advertisement, it has little impact
on most consumers' expectations regarding
product quality.
(C) Consumers perceive frequency of advertisement
as a signal about product quality only when the
advertisement is for a product that is newly on
the market.
(D) The frequency of advertisement is not always
perceived by consumers to indicate that
manufacturers are highly confident about their
products' quality.
(E) Consumers whotry a new product that has been
frequently advertised are likely to perceive the
advertisement's frequency as having been an
accurate indicator of the product's quality."                                                                                                       
        D2  The idea of the brain as an information processor—a machine manipulating blips of energy according to fathomable rules—has come to dominate neuroscience. However, one enemy of (5) the brain-as-computer metaphor is John R. Searle, a philosopher who argues that since computers simply follow algorithms, they cannot deal with important aspects of human thought such as meaning and content. Computers are syntactic, (10) rather than semantic, creatures. People, on the other hand, understand meaning because they have something Searle obscurely calls the causal powers of the brain. Yet how would a brain work if not by reducing (15) what it learns about the world to information—some kind of code that can be transmitted from neuron to neuron? What else could meaning and content be? If the code can be cracked, a computer should be able to simulate it, at least in principle. But (20) even if a computer could simulate the workings of the mind, Searle would claim that the machine would not really be thinking; it would just be acting as if it were. His argument proceeds thus: if a computer were used to simulate a stomach, with (25) the stomach's churnings faithfully reproduced on a video screen, the machine would not be digesting real food. It would just be blindly manipulating the symbols that generate the visual display. Suppose, though, that a stomach were simulated (30) using plastic tubes, a motor to do the churning, a supply of digestive juices, and a timing mechanism. If food went in one end of the device, what came out the other end would surely be digested food. Brains, unlike stomachs, are information processors, and if (35) one information processor were made to simulate another information processor, it is hard to see how one and not the other could be said to think. Simulated thoughts and real thoughts are made of the same element: information. The representations (40) of the world that humans carry around in their heads are already simulations. To accept Searle's argument, one would have to deny the most fundamental notion in psychology and neuroscience: that brains work by processing information.        "6.The main purpose of the passage is to
(A) propose an experiment
(B) analyze a function
(C) refute an argument
(D) explain a contradiction
(E) simulate a process"        "7.Which of the following is most consistent with Searle's
reasoning as presented in the passage?
(A) Meaning and content cannot be reduced to
algorithms.
(B) The process of digestion can be simulated
mechanically, but not on a computer.
(C) Simulatedthoughts and real thoughts are
essentially similar because they are composed
primarily of information.
(D) Acomputer can use ""causal powers"" similar to
those of the human brain when processing
information.
(E) Computer simulations of the world can achieve
the complexity of the brain's representations of
the world."        "8.The author of the passage would be most likely to agree withwhich of the following statements about the simulation of organ functions?
(A) An artificial device that achieves the functions of
the stomach could be considered a valid model
of the stomach.
(B) Computer simulations of the brain are best used
to crack the brain's codes of meaning and
content.
(C) Computer simulations of the brain challenge
ideas that are fundamental to psychology and
neuroscience.
(D) Because the brain and the stomach both act as
processors, they can best be simulated by
mechanical devices.
(E) Thecomputer's limitations in simulating
digestion suggest equal limitations in computersimulated
thinking."        "9. It can be inferred that the author of the passage believes that Searle's argument is flawed by its failure to
(A) distinguish between syntactic and semantic
operations
(B) explain adequately how people, unlike
computers, are able to understand meaning
(C) provide concrete examples illustrating its claims
about thinking
(D) understand how computers use algorithms to
process information
(E) decipher the code that is transmitted from
neuron to neuron in the brain"        "10. From the passage, it can be inferred that the author would agree with Searle on which of the following points?
(A) Computers operate by following algorithms.
(B) The human brain can never fully understand its
own functions.
(C) The comparison of the brain to a machine is
overly simplistic.
(D) The most accurate models of physical
processes are computer simulations.
(E) Human thought and computer-simulated thought
involve similar processes of representation"        "11.Which of the following most accurately represents Searle's criticism of the brain-as-computer metaphor, as that criticism is described in the passage?
(A) The metaphor is not experimentally verifiable.
(B) The metaphor does not take into account the unique powers of the brain.
(C) The metaphor suggests that a brain's functions
can be simulated as easily as those of a
stomach.
(D) The metaphor suggests that a computer can simulate the workings of the mind by using the codes of neural transmission.
(E) The metaphor is unhelpful because both the
brain and the computer process information."                                                                                               
        D3 Women's grassroots activism and their vision of a new civic consciousness lay at the heart of social reform in the United States throughout the Progressive Era, the period between the depression (5) of 1893 and America's entry into the Second World War. Though largely disenfranchised except for school elections, white middle-class women reformers won a variety of victories, notably in the improvement of working conditions, especially (10) for women and children. Ironically, though, child labor legislation pitted women of different classes against one another. To the reformers, child labor and industrial home work were equally inhumane practices that should be outlawed, but, (15) as a number of women historians have recently observed, working-class mothers did not always share this view. Given the precarious finances of working-class families and the necessity of pooling the wages of as many family members as possible, (20) working-class families viewed the passage and enforcement of stringent child labor statutes as a personal economic disaster and made strenuous efforts to circumvent child labor laws. Yet reformers rarely understood this resistance in terms (25) of the desperate economic situation of working class families, interpreting it instead as evidence of poor parenting. This is not to dispute women reformers' perception of child labor as a terribly exploitative practice, but their understanding of (30) child labor and their legislative solutions for ending it failed to take account of the economic needs of working-class families.         "12.The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) explain why women reformers of the Progressive
Era failed to achieve their goals
(B) discuss the origins of child labor laws in the late
nineteenth and early twentieth centuries
(C) compare the living conditions of working-class
and middle-class women in the Progressive Era
(D) discuss an oversight on the part of women
reformers of the Progressive Era
(E) revise a traditional view of the role played by
women reformers in enacting Progressive Era
reforms"        "13.The view mentioned in line 17 of the passage refers to which of the following?
(A) Some working-class mothers' resistance to the
enforcement of child labor laws
(B) Reformers' belief that child labor and industrial
home work should be abolished
(C) Reformers' opinions about how working-class
families raised their children
(D) Certain women historians' observation that there
was a lack of consensus between women of
different classes on the issue of child labor and
industrial home work
(E) Working-class families' fears about the adverse
consequences that child labor laws would have
on their ability to earn an adequate living"        "14.The author of the passage mentions the observations of women historians (lines 15-17) most probably in order to
(A) provide support for an assertion made in the preceding sentence (lines 10-12)
(B) raise a question that is answered in the last
sentence of the passage (lines 27-32)
(C) introduce an opinion that challenges a statement
made in the first sentence of the passage
(D) offer an alternative view to the one attributed in
the passage to working-class mothers
(E) point out a contradiction inherent in the
traditional view of child labor reform as it is
presented in the passage"        "15. The passage suggests that which of the following was a reason for the difference of opinion between working-class mothers and women reformers on the issue of child labor?
(A) Reformers' belief that industrial home work was
preferable to child labor outside the home
(B) Reformers' belief that child labor laws should
pertain to working conditions but not to pay
(C) Working-class mothers' resentment at reformers'
attempts to interfere with their parenting
(D) Working-class mothers' belief that child labor
was an inhumane practice
(E) Working-class families' need for every
employable member of their families to earn
money"        "16. The author of the passage asserts which of the following about women reformers who tried to abolish child labor?
(A) They alienated working-class mothers by
attempting to enlist them in agitating for
progressive causes.
(B) Theyunderestimated the prevalence of child
labor among the working classes.
(C) Theywere correct in their conviction that child labor was deplorable but shortsighted about the impact of child labor legislation on working-class families.
(D) Theywere aggressive in their attempts to
enforce child labor legislation, but were unable
to prevent working-class families from
circumventing them.
(E) Theywere prevented by their nearly total
disenfranchisementfrom making significant
progress in child labor reform."        "17. According to the passage, one of the most striking achievements of white middle-class women reformers during the Progressive Era was
(A) gaining the right to vote in school elections
(B) mobilizing working-class women in the fight
against child labor
(C) unitingwomen of different classes in grassroots
activism
(D) improving the economic conditions of workingclass
families
(E) improving women's and children's working
conditions"                                                                                               
        "1.Biologists have advanced two theories to explain why schooling of fish occurs in so many fish species. Because schooling is particularly widespread among species of small fish, both theories assume that (5) schooling offers the advantage of some protection from predators.
Proponents of theory A dispute the assumption that a school of thousands of fish is highly visible. Experiments have shown that any fish can be seen, (10) even in very clear water, only within a sphere of 200 meters in diameter. When fish are in a compact group, the spheres of visibility overlap. Thus the chance of a predator finding the school is only slightly greater than the chance of the predator finding a single fish (15) swimming alone. Schooling is advantageous to the individual fish because a predator's chance of finding any particular fish swimming in the school is much smaller than its chance of finding at least one of the same group of fish if the fish were dispersed (20) throughout an area.
However, critics of theory A point out that some fish form schools even in areas where predators are abundant and thus little possibility of escaping detection exists. They argue that the school continues (25) to be of value to its members even after detection. They advocate theory B, the ""confusion effect,"" which can be explained in two different ways.
Sometimes, proponents argue, predators simply cannot decide which fish to attack. This indecision (30) supposedly results from a predator's preference for striking prey that is distinct from the rest of the school in appearance. In many schools the fish are almost identical in appearance, making it difficult for a predator to select one. The second explanation for (35) the ""confusion effect"" has to do with the sensory confusion caused by a large number of prey moving around the predator. Even if the predator makes the decision to attack a particular fish, the movement of other prey in the school can (40) be distracting. The predator's difficulty can be compared to that of a tennis player trying to hit a tennis ball when two are approaching simultaneously. "        "1.According to the passage, theory B states that which of the following is a factor that enables a schooling fish to escape predators?
(A) The tendency of fish to form compact groups
(B) The movement of other fish within the school（蓝色句子）
(C) The inability of predators to detect schools
(D) The ability of fish to hide behind one another in
a school
(E) The great speed with which a school can
disperse"        "2.According to the passage, both theory Aand theory B have been developed to explain how
(A) fish hide from predators by forming schools
(B) forming schools functions to protect fish from predators（绿色句子）
(C) schooling among fish differs from other
protective behaviors
(D) small fish are able to make rapid decisions
(E) small fish are able to survive in an environment
densely populated by large predators"        "3.According to one explanation of the ""confusion effect,"" a fish that swims in a school will have greater advantages for survival if it
(A) tends to be visible for no more than 200 meters
(B) stays near either the front or the rear of a
school
(C) is part of a small school rather than a large
school
(D) is very similar in appearance to the other fish in
the school（红色句子）
(E) is medium-sized"        "4.The author is primarily concerned with
(A) discussing different theories
(B) analyzing different techniques
(C) defending two hypotheses
(D) refuting established beliefs
(E) revealing new evidence"                                                                                                               
        "2.Ecoefficiency (measures to minimize environmental impact through the reduction or elimination of waste from production processes) has become a goal for companies worldwide, with many realizing significant cost savings from such innovations. Peter Senge and Goran Carstedt see this development as laudable but suggest that simply adopting ecoefficiency innovations could actually worsen environmental stresses in the future. Such innovations reduce production waste but do not alter the number of products manufactured nor the waste generated from their use and discard; indeed, most companies invest in ecoefficiency improvements in order to increase profits and growth. Moreover, there is no guarantee that increased economic growth from ecoefficiency will come in similarly ecoefficient ways, since in today's global markets, greater profits may be turned into investment capital that could easily be reinvested in old-style eco-inefficient industries. Even a vastly more ecoefficient industrial system could, were it to grow much larger, generate more total waste and destroy more habitat and species than would a smaller, less ecoefficient economy. Senge and Carstedt argue that to preserve the global environment and sustain economic growth, businesses must develop a new systemic approach that reduces total material use and total accumulated waste. Focusing exclusively on ecoefficiency, which offers a compelling business case according to established thinking, may distract companies from pursuing radically different products and business models.

"        "5. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) explain why a particular business strategy has been less successful than was once anticipated
(B) propose an alternative to a particular business strategy that has inadvertently caused ecological damage
(C) present a concern about the possible
consequences of pursuing a particular business strategy
(D) make a case for applying a particular business strategy on a larger scale than is currently practiced
(E) suggest several possible outcomes of
companies' failure to understand the economic
impact of a particular business strategy"        "6. The passage mentions which of the following as a possible consequence of companies' realization of greater profits through ecoefficiency?
(A) The companies may be able to sell a greater
number of products by lowering prices.
(B) The companies may be better able to attract
investment capital in the global market.
(C) The profits may be reinvested to increase
economic growth through ecoefficiency.
(D) The profits may be used as investment capital
for industries that are not ecoefficient.
(E) The profits may encourage companies to make
further innovations in reducing production
waste."        "7.The passage implies that which of the following is a possible consequence of a company's adoption of
innovations that increase its ecoefficiency?
(A) Company profits resulting from such innovations
may be reinvested inthat company with no
guarantee that the company will continue to
make further improvements in ecoefficiency.
(B) Company growth fostered by cost savings from such innovations may allow that company to manufacture a greater number of products that will be used and discarded, thus worsening environmental stress.
(C) A company that fails to realize significant cost savings from such innovations may have little incentive to continue to minimize the
environmental impact of its production
processes.
(D) A company that comes to depend on such
innovations to increase its profits and growth
may be vulnerable in the global market to
competition from old-style eco-inefficient
industries.
(E) A company that meets its ecoefficiency goals is
unlikely to invest its increased profits in the
development of newand innovative ecoefficiency
measures.
"                                                                                                                       
        "3.Archaeology as a profession faces two major problems. First, it is the poorest of the poor. Only paltry sums are available for excavating and even less is available for publishing the results (5) and preserving the sites once excavated. Yet archaeologists deal with priceless objects every day. Second, there is the problem of illegal excavation, resulting in museum-quality pieces being sold to the highest bidder.
(10) I would like to make an outrageous suggestion that would at one stroke provide funds for archaeology and reduce the amount of illegal digging. I would propose that scientific archaeological expeditions and governmental (15) authorities sell excavated artifacts on the open market. Such sales would provide substantial funds for the excavation and preservation of archaeological sites and the publication of results. At the same time, they would break the illegal (20) excavator's grip on the market, thereby decreasing the inducement to engage in illegal activities.
You might object that professionals excavate to acquire knowledge, not money. Moreover, ancient artifacts are part of our global cultural heritage, (25) which should be available for all to appreciate, not sold to the highest bidder. I agree. Sell nothing that has unique artistic merit or scientific value. But, you might reply, everything that comes out of the ground has scientific value. Here we part company. (30) Theoretically, you may be correct in claiming that every artifact has potential scientific value. Practically, you are wrong.
I refer to the thousands of pottery vessels and ancient lamps that are essentially duplicates of (35) one another. In one small excavation in Cyprus, archaeologists recently uncovered 2,000 virtually indistinguishable small jugs in a single courtyard. Even precious royal seal impressions known as I'm elekh handles have been found in abundance  (40) —more than 4,000 examples so far.
The basements of museums are simply not large enough to store the artifacts that are likely to be discovered in the future. There is not enough money even to catalog the finds; as a result, they (45) cannot be found again and become as inaccessible as if they had never been discovered. Indeed, with the help of a computer, sold artifacts could be more accessible than are the pieces stored in bulging museum basements. Prior to sale, each could be (50) photographed and the list of the purchasers could be maintained on the computer. A purchaser could even be required to agree to return the piece if it should become needed for scientific purposes.
It would be unrealistic to suggest that illegal (55) digging would stop if artifacts were sold on the open market. But the demand for the clandestine product would be substantially reduced. Who would want an unmarked pot when another was available whose provenance was known, and that was dated (60) stratigraphically by the professional archaeologist who excavated it?"        "8. The primary purpose of the passage is to propose
(A) an alternative to museum display of artifacts
(B) a way to curb illegal digging while benefiting the
archaeological profession
(C) a wayto distinguish artifacts with scientific value
from those that have no such value
(D) the governmental regulation of archaeological
sites
(E) a new system for cataloging duplicate artifacts"        "9.The author implies that all of the following statements
about duplicate artifacts are true EXCEPT
(A) a market for such artifacts already exists
(B) such artifacts seldom have scientific value
(C) there is likely to be a continuing supply of such artifacts
(D) museums are well supplied with examples of such artifacts
(E) such artifacts frequently exceed in quality those already cataloged in museum collections"        "10.Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as
a disadvantage of storing artifacts in museum
basements?
(A) Museum officials rarely allow scholars access to such artifacts.
(B) Space that could be better used for display is taken up for storage.
(C) Artifacts discovered in one excavation often
become separated from each other.
(D) Such artifacts are often damaged by variations
in temperature and humidity.
(E) Such artifacts often remain uncataloged and
thus cannot"                                                                                                                       
        "4. lo and Europa, the inner two of Jupiter's four largest moons, are about the size of Earth's moon and are composed mostly or entirely of rock and metal. Ganymede and Callisto are larger and roughly (5) half ice. Thus, these four moons are somewhat analogous to the planets of the solar system, in which the rock- and metal-rich inner planets are distinct from the much larger gas- and ice-rich outer planets. Jupiter's moons are, however, more ""systematic"": (10) many of their properties vary continuously with distance from Jupiter. For example, lo is ice-free, Europa has a surface shell of ice, and while Ganymede and Callisto are both ice-rich, outermost Callisto has more.
(15) This compositional gradient has geological parallels, lo is extremely geologically active, Europa seems to be active on a more modest scale, and Ganymede has undergone bouts of activity in its geological past. Only Callisto reveals no geological (20) activity. In similar fashion, Callisto's surface is very heavily cratered from the impact of comets and asteroids; Ganymede, like Earth's moon, is heavily cratered in parts; Europa is very lightly cratered; and no craters have been detected on lo, even though (25) Jupiter's gravity attracts comets and asteroids passing near it, substantially increasing the bombardment rate of the inner moons compared to that of the outer ones. But because of lo's high degree of geological activity, its surface undergoes (30) more-or-less continuous volcanic resurfacing. "        "11.According to the passage, the difference in the amount of cratering on Callisto's and lo's respective surfaces can probably be explained by the difference between these two moons with respect to which of the following factors?
(A) Size
(B) Ice content
(C) The rate of bombardment by comets and
asteroids
(D) The influence of Jupiter's other moons
(E) The level of geological activity"        "12.Which of the following best describes the purpose of the second paragraph of the passage?
(A) To provide further evidence of the systematic
variation in the characteristics of Jupiter's four
largest moons
(B) To present a comprehensive theory to explain
the systematic variation in the characteristics of
Jupiter's four largest moons
(C) To explain the significance of the systematic
variation in the characteristics of Jupiter's four
largest moons
(D) To introduce facts that contradict conventional
assumptions about Jupiter's four largest moons
(E) To contrast the characteristics of Jupiter's four
largest moons with the characteristics of the
planets of the solar system"        "13.The author's reference to Jupiter's gravity in line 25 serves primarily to
(A) indicatewhy the absence of craters on lo's
surface is surprising
(B) explain the presence of craters on the surface of Jupiter's four largest moons
(C) provide an explanation for the lack of geological activity on Callisto
(D) contrast Jupiter's characteristics with the
characteristics of its four largest moons
(E) illustrate the similarity between Jupiter's four largest moons and the planets of the solar
system"                                                                                                                       
        "5. When Jamaican-born social activist Marcus Garvey came to the United States in 1916, he arrived at precisely the right historical moment. What made the moment right was the return of (5) African American soldiers from the First World War in 1918, which created an ideal constituency for someone with Garvey's message of unity, pride, and improved conditions for African American communities.
(10) Hoping to participate in the traditional American ethos of individual success, many African American people entered the armed forces with enthusiasm, only to find themselves segregated from white troops and subjected to numerous indignities. They (15) returned to a United States that was as segregated as it had been before the war. Considering similar experiences, anthropologist Anthony F. C. ** has argued that when a perceptible gap arises between a culture's expectations and the reality of (20) that culture, the resulting tension can inspire a revitalization movement: an organized, conscious effort to construct a culture that fulfills long standing expectations.
Some scholars have argued that Garvey created (25) the consciousness from which he built, in the 1920s, the largest revitalization movement in African American history. But such an argument only tends to obscure the consciousness of identity, strength, and sense of history that already (30) existed in the African American community. Garvey did not create this consciousness; rather, he gave this consciousness its political expression. "        "14.According to the passage, which of the following
contributed to Marcus Garvey's success?
(A) He introduced cultural and historical
consciousness to the African American
community.
(B) He believed enthusiastically in the traditional
American success ethos.
(C) His audience had already formed a
consciousness that made it receptive to his
message.（绿色句子）
(D) His message appealed to critics of African
American support for United States military
involvement in the First World War.
(E) He supported the movement to protest
segregation that had emerged prior to his
arrival in the United States."        "15.The passage suggests that many African American
people responded to their experiences in the armed
forces in which of the following ways?
(A) They maintained as civilians their enthusiastic
allegiance to the armed forces.
(B) They questioned United States involvement in
the First World War.
(C) They joined political organizations to protest the
segregation of African American troops and the
indignities they suffered in the military.
(D) They became aware of the gap between their
expectations and the realities of American
culture.（红色句子）
(E) They repudiated Garvey's message of pride and
unity."        "16.Itcan be inferred from the passage that the ""scholars""
mentioned in line 24 believe which of the following to be true?
(A) Revitalization resulted from the political activism
of returning African American soldiers following
the First World War.
(B) Marcus Garvey had to change a number of
prevailing attitudes in order for his mass
movement to find a foothold in the United
States.（橙色句子）
(C) The prevailing sensibility of the African
American community provided the foundation of
Marcus Garvey's political appeal.
(D) Marcus Garvey hoped to revitalize
consciousness of cultural and historical identity
in the African American community.
(E) The goal of the mass movement that Marcus
Garvey helped bring into being was to build on
the pride and unity among African Americans."        "17.According to the passage, many African American
people joined the armed forces during the First World
War for which of the following reasons?
(A) They wished to escape worsening economic
conditions in African American communities.
(B) They expected to fulfill ideals of personal
attainment.（蓝色句子）
(C) They sought to express their loyaltyto the
United States.
(D) They hoped that joining the military would help
advance the cause of desegregation.
(E) They saw military service as an opportunity to
fulfill Marcus Garvey's political vision."                                                                                                               
        "6. In terrestrial environments, gravity places special demands on the cardiovascular systems of animals. Gravitational pressure can cause blood to pool in the lower regions of the body, making it difficult to circulate blood to critical organs such as the brain. Terrestrial snakes, in particular, exhibit adaptations that aid in circulating blood against the force of gravity.
The problem confronting terrestrial snakes is best illustrated by what happens to sea snakes when removed from their supportive medium. Because the vertical pressure gradients within the blood vessels are counteracted by similar pressure gradients in the surrounding water, the distribution of blood throughout the body of sea snakes remains about the same regardless of their orientation in space, provided they remain in the ocean. When removed from the water and tilted at various angles with the head up, however, blood pressure at their midpoint drops significantly, and at brain level falls to zero. That many terrestrial snakes in similar spatial orientations do not experience this kind of circulatory failure suggests that certain adaptations enable them to regulate blood pressure more effectively in those orientations.
One such adaptation is the closer proximity of the terrestrial snake's heart to its head, which helps to ensure circulation to the brain, regardless of the snake's orientation in space. The heart of sea snakes can be located near the middle of the body, a position that minimizes the work entailed in circulating blood to both extremities. In arboreal snakes, however, which dwell in trees and often assume a vertical posture, the average distance "        "18.The passage provides information in support of which
of the following assertions?
(A) The disadvantages of an adaptation to a
particular feature of an environment often
outweigh the advantages of such an adaptation.
(B) An organism's reaction to being placed in an environment to which it is not well adapted can sometimes illustrate the problems that have been solved by the adaptations of organisms indigenous to that environment.
(C) The effectiveness of an organism's adaptation to
a particular feature of its environment can only
be evaluated by examining the effectiveness
with which organisms of other species have
adapted to a similar feature of a different
environment.
(D) Organisms of the same species that inhabit
strikingly different environments will often adapt
in remarkably similar ways to the few features of
those environments that are common.
(E) Different species of organisms living in the same
environment will seldom adapt to features of
that environment in the same way."        "19. According to the passage, one reason that the
distribution of blood in the sea snake changes little
while the creature remains in the ocean is that
(A) the heart of the sea snake tends to be located
near the center of its body
(B) pressure gradients in the water surrounding the
sea snake counter the effects of vertical
pressure gradients within its blood vessels
(C) the sea snake assumes a vertical posture less
frequently than do the terrestrial and the
arboreal snake
(D) the sea snake often relies on waves of muscle
contractions to help move blood from the torso
to the head
(E) the force of pressure gradients in the water
surrounding the sea snake exceeds that of
vertical pressure gradients within its circulatory
system"        "20. Itcan be inferred from the passage that which of the
following is true of species of terrestrial snakes that
often need to assume a vertical posture?
(A) They are more likely to be susceptible to
circulatory failure in vertical postures than are
sea snakes.
(B) Their hearts are less likely to be located at the
midpoint of their bodies than is the case with
sea snakes.
(C) They cannot counteract the pooling of blood in
lower regions of their bodies as effectively as
sea snakes can.
(D) The blood pressure at their midpoint decreases
significantly when they are tilted with their
heads up.
(E) They are unable to relyon muscle contractions
to move venous blood from the lower torso to
the head."        "21. The author describes the behavior of the circulatory
system of sea snakes when they are removed from
the ocean (see lines 17-20) primarilyin order to
(A) illustrate what would occur in the circulatory
system of terrestrial snakes without adaptations
that enable them to regulate their blood
pressure in vertical orientations
(B) explain why arboreal snakes in vertical
orientations must rely on muscle contractions to
restore blood pressure to the brain
(C) illustrate the effects of circulatory failure on the
behavior of arboreal snakes
(D) illustrate the superiority of the circulatory
system of the terrestrial snake to that of the sea
snake
(E) explain how changes in spatial orientation can
adversely affect the circulatory system of
snakes with hearts located in relatively close
proximity to their heads"        "22. Itcan be inferred from the passage that which of the
following is a true statement aboutsea snakes?
(A) They frequently relyon waves of muscle
contractions from the lower torso to the head to
supplement the work of the heart.
(B) Theycannoteffectivelyregulate their blood
pressurewhen placed in seawaterandtilted at
an angle with the head pointed downward.
(C) They are more likely to have a heart located in
close proximity to their headsthan are arboreal
snakes.
(D) They become acutely vulnerable to the effects
of gravitational pressure ontheir circulatory
system when they are placed in aterrestrial
environment.
(E) Their cardiovascular system is not as
complicated as that of arboreal snakes"        "23. The author suggests that which of the following is a
disadvantage that results from the location of a
snake's heart in close proximity to its head?
(A) A decrease in the efficiency with which the snake
regulates the flow of blood to the brain
(B) A decrease in the number of orientations in
space that a snake can assume without loss of
blood flow to the brain
(C) A decrease in blood pressure at the snake's
midpointwhen it is tilted at various angles with
its head up
(D) An increase in the tendency of blood to pool at
the snake's head when the snake is tilted at
various angles with its head down
(E) An increase in the amount of effort required to
distribute blood to and from the snake's tail"        "24. The primary purposeof the third paragraph is to
(A) introduce a topic that is not discussed earlier in
the passage
(B) describe a more efficient method of achieving
an effect discussed in the previous paragraph
(C) draw a conclusion based on information
elaborated in the previous paragraph
(D) discuss two specific examples of phenomena
mentioned at the end of the previous paragraph
(E) introduce evidence that undermines a view
reported earlierin the passage"        "25. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with
doing which of the following?
(A) Explaining adaptations that enable the terrestrial
snake to cope with the effects of gravitational
pressure on its circulatory system
(B) Comparing the circulatory system of the sea
snake with that of the terrestrial snake
(C) Explaining why the circulatory system of the
terrestrial snake is different from that of the sea
snake
(D) Pointing out features of the terrestrial snake's
cardiovascular system that make it superiorto
that of the sea snake
(E) Explaining how the sea snake is able to
neutralize the effects of gravitational pressure
on its circulatory system"                                                                               
        "7. In 1988 services moved ahead of manufacturing as the main product of the United States economy. But what is meant by ""services""? Some economists define a service as something (5) that is produced and consumed simultaneously, for example, a haircut. The broader, classical definition is that a service is an intangible something that cannot be touched or stored. Yet electric utilities can store energy, and computer programmers (10) save information electronically. Thus, the classical definition is hard to sustain.
The United States government's definition is more practical: services are the residual category that includes everything that is not agriculture or (15) industry. Under this definition, services includes activities as diverse as engineering and driving a bus. However, besides lacking a strong conceptual framework, this definition fails to recognize the distinction between service industries and service (20) occupations. It categorizes workers based on their company's final product rather than on the actual work the employees perform. Thus, the many service workers employed by manufacturers book keepers or janitors, for example—would (25) fall under the industrial rather than the services category. Such ambiguities reveal the arbitrariness of this definition and suggest that, although practical for government purposes, it does not accurately reflect the composition of the current (30) United States economy. "        "26. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
(A) discussing research data underlying several
definitions
(B) arguing for the adoption of a particular definition
(C) exploring definitions of a concept
(D) comparing the advantages of several definitions
(E) clarifying some ambiguous definitions"        "27. In comparing the United States government's definition
of services with the classical definition, the author
suggests that the classical definition is
(A) more pragmatic
(B) more difficult to apply
(C) less ambiguous
(D) more widely used
(E) more arbitrary"        "28. The passage suggests which of the following about
service workers in the United States?
(A) The number of service workers may be
underestimated by the definition of services
used by the government.
(B) There were fewer service workers than
agricultural workers before 1988.
(C) The number of service workers was almost
equal to the number of workers employed in
manufacturing until 1988.
(D) Most service workers are employed in service
occupations rather than in service industries.
(E) Most service workers are employed in
occupations where they provide services that do
not fall under the classical definition of services."        "29. The author of the passage mentions which of the
following as one disadvantage of the United States
government's definition of services?
(A) It is less useful than the other definitions
mentioned in the passage.
(B) It is narrower in scope than the other definitions
mentioned in the passage.
(C) It is based on the final product produced rather
than on the type of work performed.
(D) It does not recognize the diversity of
occupations within the service industries.
(E) It misclassifies many workers who are employed
in service industries."        "30. The author refers to ""service workers employed by
manufacturers"" (line 23) primarily in order to point out
(A) a type of worker not covered by the United
States government's system of classifying
occupations
(B) a flaw in the United States government's
definition of services
(C) a factor that has influenced the growth of the
service economy in the United States
(D) a type of worker who is classified on the basis of
work performed rather than on the basis of the
company's final product
(E) the diversity of the workers who are referred to
as service workers"                                                                                                       
        "8. Current feminist theory, in validating women's own stories of their experience, has encouraged scholars of women's history to view the use of women's oral narratives as the methodology, next to the use of (5) women's written autobiography, that brings historians closest to the ""reality"" of women's lives. Such narratives, unlike most standard histories, represent experience from the perspective of women, affirm the importance of women's contributions, and furnish (10) present-day women with historical continuity that is essential to their identity, individually and collectively.
Scholars of women's history should, however, be as cautious about accepting oral narratives at face value as they already are about written memories. (15) Oral narratives are no more likely than are written narratives to provide a disinterested commentary on events or people. Moreover, the stories people tell to explain themselves are shaped by narrative devices and storytelling conventions, as well as by other (20) cultural and historical factors, in ways that the storytellers may be unaware of. The political rhetoric of a particular era, for example, may influence women's interpretations of the significance of their experience. Thus a woman who views the Second (25) World War as pivotal in increasing the social acceptance of women's paid work outside the home may reach that conclusion partly and unwittingly because of wartime rhetoric encouraging a positive view of women's participation in such work. "        "31. The passage is primarily concerned with
(A) contrasting the benefits of one methodology
with the benefits of another
(B) describing the historical origins and inherent
drawbacks of a particular methodology
(C) discussing the appeal of a particular
methodology and some concerns about its use
(D) showing that some historians' adoption of a
particular methodology has led to criticism of
recent historical scholarship
(E) analyzing the influence of current feminist views
on women's interpretations of their experience"        "32. According to the passage, which of the following
shapes the oral narratives of women storytellers?
(A) The conventions for standard histories in the
culture in which a woman storyteller lives
(B) The conventions of storytelling in the culture in
which a woman storyteller lives
(C) Awoman storyteller's experience with distinctive
traditions of storytelling developed by the
women in her family of origin
(D) The cultural expectations and experiences of
those who listen to oral narratives
(E) Awoman storyteller's familiarity with the stories
that members of other groups in her culture tell
to explain themselves"        "33. The author of the passage would be most likely to
make which of the following recommendations to
scholars of women's history?
(A) They should take into accounttheirownlife
experiences when interpreting the oral accounts
of women's historical experiences.
(B) They should assume that the observations made
in women's oral narratives are believed by the
intended audience of the story.
(C) They should treat skeptically observations
reported in oral narratives unless the
observations can be confirmed in standard
histories.
(D) They should consider the cultural and historical
context in which an oral narrative was created
before arriving at an interpretation of such a
narrative.
(E) They should rely on information gathered from
oral narratives only when equivalent information
is not available in standard histories."        "34. Which of the following best describes the function of
the last sentence of the passage?
(A) It describes an event that historians view as
crucial in recent women's history.
(B) It provides an example of how political rhetoric
may influence the interpretations of experience
reported in women's oral narratives.
(C) It provides an example of an oral narrative that
inaccurately describes women's experience
during a particular historical period.
(D) It illustrates the point that some women are
more aware than others of the social forces that
shape their oral narratives.
(E) It identifies the historical conditions that led to
the social acceptance of women's paid work
outside the home."        "35. According to the passage, scholars of women's history
should refrain from doing which of the following?
(A) Relying on traditional historical sources when
women's oral narratives are unavailable
(B) Focusing on the influence of political rhetoric on
women's perceptions to the exclusion of other
equallyimportant factors
(C) Attempting to discover the cultural and historical
factors that influence the stories women tell
(D) Assuming that the conventions of women's
written autobiographies are similar to the
conventions of women's oral narratives
(E) Acceptingwomen's oral narratives less critically
than they accept women's written histories"        "36. According to the passage, each of the following is a
difference between women's oral narratives and most
standard histories EXCEPT:
(A) Women's oral histories validate the significance
of women's achievements.
(B) Women's oral histories depict experience from
the point of view of women.
(C) Women's oral histories acknowledge the
influence of well-known women.
(D) Women's oral histories present today's women
with a sense of their historical relationship to
women of the past.
(E) Women's oral histories are crucial to the
collective identity of today's women"                                                                                               
        "9. Manufacturers have to do more than build large manufacturing plants to realize economies of scale. It is true that as the capacity of a manufacturing operation rises, costs per unit of output fall as plant (5) size approaches ""minimum efficient scale,"" where the cost per unit of output reaches a minimum, determined roughly by the state of existing technology and size of the potential market. However, minimum efficient scale cannot be fully realized unless a steady (10) ""throughput"" (the flow of materials through a plant) is attained. The throughput needed to maintain the optimal scale of production requires careful coordination not only of the flow of goods through the production process, but also of the flow of input from (15) suppliers and the flow of output to wholesalers and final consumers. If throughput falls below a critical point, unit costs rise sharply and profits disappear. A manufacturer's fixed costs and ""sunk costs"" (original capital investment in the physical plant) do not (20) decrease when production declines due to inadequate supplies of raw materials, problems on the factory floor, or inefficient sales networks. Consequently, potential economies of scale are based on the physical and engineering characteristics of the (25) production facilities—that is, on tangible capital—but realized economies of scale are operational and organizational, and depend on knowledge, skills, experience, and teamwork—that is, on organized human capabilities, or intangible capital.
(30) The importance of investing in intangible capital becomes obvious when one looks at what happens in new capital-intensive manufacturing industries. Such industries are quickly dominated, not by the first firms to acquire technologically sophisticated plants of (35) theoretically optimal size, but rather by the first to exploit the full potential of such plants. Once some firms achieve this, a market becomes extremely hard to enter. Challengers must construct comparable plants and do so after the first movers have already (40) worked out problems with suppliers or with new production processes. Challengers must create distribution networks and marketing systems in markets where first movers have all the contacts and know-how. And challengers must recruit management (45) teams to compete with those that have already mastered these functional and strategic activities. "        "37. The passage suggests that in order for a
manufacturer in a capital-intensive industry to have a
decisive advantage over competitors making similar
products, the manufacturer must
(A) be the first in the industry to build production
facilities of theoretically optimal size
(B) make every effort to keep fixed and sunk costs as low as possible
(C) be one of the first to operate its manufacturing plants at minimum efficient scale（绿色句子）
(D) produce goods of higher quality than those
produced by direct competitors
(E) stockpile raw materials at production sites in
order to ensure a steady flow of such materials"        "38. The passage suggests that which of the following is
true of a manufacturer's fixed and sunk costs?
(A) The extent to which they are determined by
market conditions for the goods being
manufactured is frequently underestimated.
(B) Ifthey are kept as low as possible, the
manufacturer is very likely to realize significant
profits.
(C) They are the primary factor that determines
whether a manufacturer will realize economies
of scale.
(D) They should be on a par with the fixed and sunk
costs of the manufacturer's competitors.
(E) They are not affected by fluctuations in a
manufacturing plant's throughput.（橙色句子）"        "39. In the context of the passage as a whole, the second
paragraph serves primarily to
(A) provide an example to support the argument
presented in the first paragraph
(B) evaluate various strategies discussed in the first
paragraph
(C) introduce evidence that undermines the
argument presented in the first paragraph
(D) anticipate possible objections to the argument
presented in the first paragraph
(E) demonstrate the potential dangers of a
commonly used strategy"        "40. The passage LEAST supports the inference that a
manufacturer's throughput could be adversely
affected by
(A) a mistake in judgment regarding the selection of
a wholesaler
(B) a breakdown in the factory's machinery
(C) a labor dispute on the factory floor
(D) an increase in the cost per unit of output
(E) a drop in the efficiency of the sales network"        "41. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) point out the importance of intangible capital
for realizing economies of scale in
manufacturing
(B) show that manufacturers frequently gain a
competitive advantage from investment in large
manufacturing facilities
(C) argue that large manufacturing facilities often
fail because of inadequate investment in both
tangible and intangible capital
(D) suggest that most new industries are likelyto
be dominated by firms that build large
manufacturing plants early
(E) explain why large manufacturing plants usually
do not help manufacturers achieve economies
of scale"                                                                                                       
        "10. In the seventeenth-century Florentine textile industry, women were employed primarily in low paying, low-skill jobs. To explain this segregation of labor by gender, economists have relied on (5) the useful theory of human capital. According to this theory, investment in human capital—the acquisition of difficult job-related skills—generally benefits individuals by making them eligible to engage in well-paid occupations. Women's role as (10) child bearers, however, results in interruptions in their participation in the job market (as compared with men's) and thus reduces their opportunities to acquire training for highly skilled work. In addition, the human capital theory explains why (15) there was a high concentration of women workers in certain low-skill jobs, such as weaving, but not in others, such as combing or carding, by positing that because of their primary responsibility in child rearing women took occupations that could be (20) carried out in the home.
There were, however, differences in pay scales that cannot be explained by the human capital theory. For example, male construction workers were paid significantly higher wages than female (25) taffeta weavers. The wage difference between these two low-skill occupations stems from the segregation of labor by gender: because a limited number of occupations were open to women, there was a large supply of workers in their fields, and (30) this ""overcrowding"" resulted in women receiving lower wages and men receiving higher wages. "        "42. The passage suggests that combing and carding differ
from weaving in that combing and carding were
A.low-skill jobs performed primarily by women
employees
B.low-skill jobs that were not performed in the
home
C.low-skill jobs performed by both male and
female employees
D.high-skill jobs performed outside the home
E.high-skill jobs performed by both male and
female employees"        "43.Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the explanation provided by the human capital theory for
women's concentration in certain occupations in
seventeenth-century Florence?
(A) Women were unlikely to work outside the home
even in occupations whose hours were flexible
enough to allow women to accommodate
domestic tasks as well as paid labor.
(B) Parents were less likely to teach occupational
skills to their daughters than they were to their
sons.
(C) Women's participation in the Florentine paid
labor force grew steadily throughout the
sixteenth and seventeenth centuries.
(D) The vast majority of female weavers in the
Florentine wool industry had children.
(E) Few women worked as weavers in the Florentine
silk industry, which was devoted to making
cloths that required a high degree of skill to
produce."        "44. The author of the passage would be most likely to
describe the explanation provided by the human
capital theory for the high concentration of women in
certain occupations in the seventeenth-century
Florentine textile industry as
(A) well founded though incomplete
(B) difficult to articulate
(C) plausible but poorly substantiated
(D) seriously flawed.
(E) contrary to recent research"                                                                                                                       
        11. (This passage was adapted from an article written in 1992.)  Some observers have attributed the dramatic growth in temporary employment that occurred in the United States during the 1980s to increased participation in the workforce by certain groups, (5) such as first-time or reentering workers, who supposedly prefer such arrangements. However, statistical analyses reveal that demographic changes in the workforce did not correlate with variations in the total number of temporary (10) workers. Instead, these analyses suggest that factors affecting employers account for the rise in temporary employment. One factor is product demand: temporary employment is favored by employers who are adapting to fluctuating demand (15) for products while at the same time seeking to reduce overall labor costs. Another factor is labor's reduced bargaining strength, which allows employers more control over the terms of employment. Given the analyses, which reveal that (20) growth in temporary employment now far exceeds the level explainable by recent workforce entry rates of groups said to prefer temporary jobs, firms should be discouraged from creating excessive numbers of temporary positions. Government (25) policymakers should consider mandating benefit coverage for temporary employees, promoting pay equity between temporary and permanent workers, assisting labor unions in organizing temporary workers, and encouraging firms to assign temporary (30) jobs primarily to employees who explicitly indicate that preference.         "45. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) present the results of statistical analyses and
propose further studies
(B) explain a recent development and predict its
eventual consequences
(C) identify the reasons for a trend and recommend
measures to address it
(D) outline several theories about a phenomenon
and advocate one of them
(E) describe the potential consequences of
implementing a new policy and argue in favor of
that policy"        "46. According to the passage, which of the following is
true of the ""factors affecting employers"" that are
mentioned in lines 10-19?
(A) Most experts cite them as having initiated the
growth in temporary employment that occurred
during the 1980s.
(B) They may account for the increase in the total
number of temporary workers during the 1980s.
(C) They were less important than demographic
change in accounting for the increase of
temporary employment during the 1980s.
(D) They included a sharp increase in the cost of
labor during the 1980s.
(E) They are more difficultto account for than are
other factors involved in the growth of
temporary employment during the 1980s."        "47. The passage suggests which of the following about
the use of temporary employment by firms during
the 1980s?
(A) It enabled firms to deal with fluctuating product
demand far more efficiently than they did before
the 1980s.
(B) It increased as a result of increased participation
inthe workforce by certain demographic groups.
(C) Itwas discouraged by government-mandated
policies.
(D) Itwas a response to preferences indicated by
certain employees for more flexible working
arrangements.
(E) It increased partly as a result of workers'reduced
ability to control the terms of their employment."        "48. The passage suggests which of the following aboutthe
workers who took temporary jobs during the 1980s?
(A) Their jobs frequently led to permanent positions
within firms.
(B) They constituted a less demographically diverse
group than has been suggested.
(C) They were occasionallyinvolved in actions
organized by labor unions.
(D) Their pay declined during the decade in
comparison with the pay of permanent
employees.
(E) They did not necessarily prefer temporary
employment to permanent employment."        "49. The first sentence in the passage suggests that the
""observers"" mentioned in line 1 would be most likely to
predict which of the following?
(A) That the number of new temporary positions
would decline as fewer workers who preferred
temporary employment entered the workforce
(B) That the total number of temporary positions
would increase as fewer workers were able to
find permanent positions
(C) That employers would have less control over the
terms of workers' employment as workers
increased their bargaining strength
(D) That more workers would be hired for temporary
positions as product demand increased
(E) That the number of workers taking temporary
positions would increase as more workers in any
given demographic group entered the workforce"        "50. In the context of the passage, the word""excessive""
(line 23) most closely corresponds to which of the
following phrases?
(A) Far more than can be justified by worker
preferences
(B) Far morethan can be explained by fluctuations
in product demand
(C) Far more than can be beneficial to the success
of the firms themselves
(D) Far morethan can be accounted for by an
expanding national economy
(E) Far more than can be attributed to increases in
the total number of people in the workforce"        "51. The passage mentions eachof the following as an
appropriate kind of governmental action EXCEPT
(A) getting firms to offertemporary employment
primarily to a certain group of people
(B) encouraging equitable pay for temporary and
permanent employees
(C) facilitating the organization of temporary
workers by labor unions
(D) establishing guidelines on the proportion of
temporary workers that firms should employ
(E) ensuring that temporary workers obtain benefits
from their employers"                                                                                       
        12.Among the myths taken as fact by the environmental managers of most corporations is the belief that environmental regulations affect all competitors in a given industry uniformly. In reality, regulatory costs—and therefore compliance—fall (5)unevenly, economically disadvantaging some companies and benefiting others. For example, a plant situated near a number of larger noncompliant competitors is less likely to attract the attention of local regulators than is an isolated (10)plant, and less attention means lower costs. Additionally, large plants can spread compliance costs such as waste treatment across a larger revenue base; on the other hand, some smaller plants may not even be subject to certain (15)provisions such as permit or reporting requirements by virtue of their size. Finally, older production technologies often continue to generate toxic wastes that were not regulated when the technology was first adopted. New regulations (20)have imposed extensive compliance costs on companies still using older industrial coal-fired burners that generate high sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide outputs, for example, whereas new facilities generally avoid processes that would (25)create such waste products. By realizing that they have discretion and that not all industries are affected equally by environmental regulation, environmental managers can help their companies to achieve a competitive edge by anticipating (30)regulatory pressure and exploring all possibilities for addressing how changing regulations will affect their companies specifically.         "52. Itcan be inferred from the passage that a large plant
might have to spend more than a similar but smaller
plant on environmental compliance because the larger
plant is
(A) more likely to attract attention from local
regulators
(B) less likely to be exempt from permit and
reporting requirements
(C) less likely to have regulatory costs passed on to
it by companies that supply its raw materials
(D) more likely to employ older production
technologies
(E) more likely to generate wastes that are more
environmentally damaging than those generated
by smaller plants"        "53. According to the passage, which of the following
statements about sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide
outputs is true?
(A) Older production technologies cannot be
adapted so as to reduce production of these
outputs as waste products.
(B) Under the most recent environmental
regulations, industrial plants are no longer
permitted to produce these outputs.
(C) Although these outputs are environmentally
hazardous, some plants still generate them as
waste products despite the high compliance
costs they impose.
(D) Many older plants have developed innovative
technological processes that reduce the
amounts of these outputs generated as waste
products.
(E) Since the production processes that generate
these outputs are less costly than alternative
processes, these less expensive processes are
sometimes adopted despite their acknowledged
environmental hazards."        "54. Which of the following best describes the relationship
of the statement about large plants (lines 12-17) to
the passage as a whole?
(A) It presents a hypothesis that is disproved later
in the passage.
(B) It highlights an opposition between two ideas
mentioned in the passage.
(C) It provides examples to support a claim made
earlier in the passage.
(D) It exemplifies a misconception mentioned earlier
in the passage.
(E) It draws an analogy between two situations
described in the passage."        "55. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) address a widespread environmental
management problem and suggest possible
solutions
(B) illustrate varying levels of compliance with
environmental regulation among different
corporations
(C) describe the various alternatives to traditional
methods of environmental management
(D) advocate increased corporate compliance with
environmental regulation
(E) correct a common misconception about the
impact of environmental regulations"                                                                                                               
        "13. In Winters v. United States (1908), the Supreme Court held that the right to use waters flowing through or adjacent to the Fort Belknap Indian Reservation was reserved to American Indians by the treaty (5) establishing the reservation. Although this treaty did not mention water rights, the Court ruled that the federal government, when it created the reservation, intended to deal fairly with American Indians by reserving for them the waters without which their (10) lands would have been useless. Later decisions, citing Winters, established that courts can find federal rights to reserve water for particular purposes if (1) the land in question lies within an enclave under exclusive federal jurisdiction, (2) the land has been formally (15) withdrawn from federal public lands—i.e., withdrawn from the stock of federal lands available for private use under federal land use laws—and set aside or reserved, and (3) the circumstances reveal the government intended to reserve water as well as land (20) when establishing the reservation.
Some American Indian tribes have also established water rights through the courts based on their traditional diversion and use of certain waters prior to the United States' acquisition of sovereignty. For (25) example, the Rio Grande pueblos already existed when the United States acquired sovereignty over New Mexico in 1848. Although they at that time became part of the United States, the pueblo lands never formally constituted a part of federal public lands; in (30) any event, no treaty, statute, or executive order has ever designated or withdrawn the pueblos from public lands as American Indian reservations. This fact, however, has not barred application of the Winters doctrine. What constitutes an American Indian (35) reservation is a question of practice, not of legal definition, and the pueblos have always been treated as reservations by the United States. This pragmatic approach is buttressed by Arizona v. California (1963), wherein the Supreme Court indicated that the manner (40) in which any type of federal reservation is created does not affect the application to it of the Winters doctrine. Therefore, the reserved water rights of Pueblo Indians have priority over other citizens' water rights as of 1848, the year in which pueblos must be (45) considered to have become reservations.  "        "56. According to the passage, which of the following was
true of the treaty establishing the Fort Belknap Indian Reservation?
(A) It was challenged in the Supreme Court a
number of times.
(B) It was rescinded by the federal government, an
action that gave rise to the Winters case.
(C) It cited American Indians' traditional use of the land's resources.
(D) It failed to mention water rights to be enjoyed by the reservation's inhabitants.
(E) It was modified by the Supreme Court in
Arizona v. California."        "57. The passage suggests that, if the criteria discussed in
lines 10-20 were the only criteria for establishing a
reservation's water rights, which of the following would be true?
(A) The water rights of the inhabitants of the Fort
Belknap Indian Reservation would not take
precedence over those of other citizens.
(B) Reservations established before 1848 would be
judged to have no water rights.
(C) There would be no legal basis for the water
rights of the Rio Grande pueblos.
(D) Reservations other than American Indian
reservations could not be created with reserved
water rights.
(E) Treaties establishing reservations would have to
mention water rights explicitly in order to
reserve water for a particular purpose"        "58. Which of the following most accurately summarizes
the relationship between Arizona v. California in lines
38-42, and the criteria citing the Winters doctrine in
lines 10-20?
(A) Arizona v. California abolishes these criteria and
establishes a competing set of criteria for
applying the Winters doctrine.
(B) Arizona v. California establishes that the Winters
doctrine applies to a broader range of situations
than those defined by these criteria.
(C) Arizona v. California represents the sole example
of an exception to the criteria as they were set
forth in the Winters doctrine.
(D) Arizona v. Californiadoes not refer to the Winters
doctrine to justify water rights, whereas these
criteria do rely on the Winters doctrine.
(E) Arizona v. California applies the criteria derived
from the Winters doctrine only to federal lands
other than American Indian reservations."        "59. The ""pragmatic approach"" mentioned in lines 37-38
of the passage is best defined as one that
(A) grants recognition to reservations that were
never formally established but that have
traditionally been treated as such
(B) determines the water rights of all citizens in a
particular region by examining the actual history
of water usage in that region
(C) gives federal courts the right to reserve water
along with land even when it is clear that the
government originally intended to reserve only
the land
(D) bases the decision to recognize the legal rights
of a group on the practical effect such a
recognition is likely to have on other citizens
(E) dictates that courts ignore precedents set by
such cases as Winters v. United States in
deciding what water rights belong to reserved
land"        "60. The author cites the fact that the Rio Grande pueblos
were never formally withdrawn from public lands
primarily in order to do which of the following?
(A) Suggest why it might have been argued that the
Winters doctrine ought not to apply to pueblo
lands
(B) Imply that the United States never really
acquired sovereignty over pueblo lands
(C) Argue that the pueblo lands ought still to be
considered part of federal public lands
(D) Support the argument that the water rights of
citizens other than American Indians are limited
by the Winters doctrine
(E) Suggest that federal courts cannot claim
jurisdiction over cases disputing the traditional
diversion and use of water by Pueblo Indians"        "61. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) trace the development of laws establishing
American Indian reservations
(B) explain the legal basis for the water rights of
American Indian tribes
(C) question the legal criteria often used to
determine the water rights of American Indian
tribes
(D) discuss evidence establishing the earliest date
at which the federal government recognized the
water rights of American Indians
(E) point out a legal distinction between different
types of American Indian reservations"        "62. The passage suggests that the legal rights of citizens
other than American Indians to the use of water
flowing into the Rio Grande pueblos are
(A) guaranteed by the precedent set in Arizona v.
California
(B) abolished by the Winters doctrine
(C) deferred to the Pueblo Indians whenever treaties
explicitly require this
(D) guaranteed by federal land-use laws
(E) limited by the prior claims of the Pueblo Indians"                                                                                       
        "14. Milankovitch proposed in the early twentieth century that the ice ages were caused by variations in the Earth's orbit around the Sun. For some time this theory was considered untestable, (5) largely because there was no sufficiently precise chronology of the ice ages with which the orbital variations could be matched.
To establish such a chronology it is necessary to determine the relative amounts of land ice that (10) existed at various times in the Earth's past. A recent discovery makes such a determination possible: relative land-ice volume for a given period can be deduced from the ratio of two oxygen isotopes, 16 and 18, found in ocean sediments. Almost (15) all the oxygen in water is oxygen 16, but a few molecules out of every thousand incorporate the heavier isotope 18. When an ice age begins, the continental ice sheets grow, steadily reducing the amount of water evaporated from the ocean that (20) will eventually return to it. Because heavier isotopes tend to be left behind when water evaporates from the ocean surfaces, the remaining ocean water becomes progressively enriched in oxygen 18. The degree of enrichment can be determined (25) by analyzing ocean sediments of the period, because these sediments are composed of calcium carbonate shells of marine organisms, shells that were constructed with oxygen atoms drawn from the surrounding ocean. The higher the ratio of (30) oxygen 18 to oxygen 16 in a sedimentary specimen, the more land ice there was when the sediment was laid down.
As an indicator of shifts in the Earth's climate, the isotope record has two advantages. First, it is (35) a global record: there is remarkably little variation in isotope ratios in sedimentary specimens taken from different continental locations. Second, it is a more continuous record than that taken from rocks on land. Because of these advantages, (40) sedimentary evidence can be dated with sufficient accuracy by radiometric methods to establish a precise chronology of the ice ages. The dated isotope record shows that the fluctuations in global ice volume over the past several hundred (45) thousand years have a pattern: an ice age occurs roughly once every 100,000 years. These data have established a strong connection between variations in the Earth's orbit and the periodicity of the ice ages.
(50) However, it is important to note that other factors, such as volcanic particulates or variations in the amount of sunlight received by the Earth, could potentially have affected the climate. The advantage of the Milankovitch theory is that it (55) is testable; changes in the Earth's orbit can be calculated and dated by applying Newton's laws of gravity to progressively earlier configurations of the bodies in the solar system. Yet the lack of information about other possible factors affecting (60) global climate does not make them unimportant."        "63. In the passage, the author is primarily interested in
(A) suggesting an alternative to an outdated
research method
(B) introducing a new research method that calls an
accepted theory into question
(C) emphasizing the instability of data gathered
from the application of a new scientific method
(D) presenting a theory and describing a new
method to test that theory
(E) initiating a debate about a widely accepted
theory"        "64. The author of the passage would be most likely to
agree with which of the following statements about the
Milankovitch theory?
(A) It is the only possible explanation for the ice
ages.
(B) It is too limited to provide a plausible explanation
for the ice ages, despite recent research
findings.
(C) It cannot be tested and confirmed until further
research on volcanic activity is done.
(D) It is one plausible explanation, though not the
only one, for the ice ages.
(E) It is not a plausible explanation for the ice ages,
although it has opened up promising possibilities
for future research"        "65. It can be inferred from the passage that the isotope
record taken from ocean sediments would be less
useful to researchers if which of the following were true?
(A) It indicated that lighter isotopes of oxygen
predominated at certain times.
(B) It had far more gaps in its sequence than the
record taken from rocks on land.
(C) It indicated that climate shifts did not occur
every 100,000 years.
(D) It indicated that the ratios of oxygen 16 and
oxygen 18 in ocean water were not consistent
with those found in fresh water.
(E) It stretched back for only a million years."        "66. According to the passage, which of the following is
true of the ratios of oxygen isotopes in ocean
sediments?
(A) They indicate that sediments found during an ice
age contain more calcium carbonate than
sediments formed at other times.
(B) They are less reliablethan the evidence from
rocks on land in determining the volume of
land ice.
(C) They can be used to deduce the relative volume
of land ice that was present when the sediment
was laid down.
(D) They are more unpredictable during an ice age
than in other climatic conditions.
(E) They can be used to determine atmospheric
conditions at various times in the past."        "67.It can be inferred from the passage that precipitation
formed from evaporated ocean water has
(A) the same isotopic ratio as ocean water
(B) less oxygen 18 than does ocean water
(C) less oxygen 18 than has the ice contained in
continental ice sheets
(D) a different isotopic composition than has
precipitation formed from water on land
(E) more oxygen 16 than has precipitation formed
from fresh water"        "68.Itcan be inferred from the passage that calcium
carbonate shells
(A) are not as susceptible to deterioration as rocks
(B) are less common in sediments formed during an
ice age
(C) are found only in areas that were once covered
by land ice
(D) contain radioactive material that can be used to
determine a sediment's isotopic composition
(E) reflect the isotopic composition of the water at
the time the shells were formed"                                                                                               
        15.Two works published in 1984 demonstrate contrasting approaches to writing the history of United States women. Buel and Buel's biography of MaryFish (1736-1818) makes little effort to place (5) her story in the context of recent historiography on women. Lebsock, meanwhile, attempts not only to write the history of women in one southern community, but also to redirect two decades of historiographical debate as to whether women (10) gained or lost status in the nineteenth century as compared with the eighteenth century. Although both books offer the reader the opportunity to assess this controversy regarding women's status, only Lebsock's deals with it directly. She examines (15) several different aspects of women's status, helping to refine and resolve the issues. She concludes that while women gained autonomy in some areas, especially in the private sphere, they lost it in many aspects of the economic sphere. More importantly, (20) she shows that the debate itself depends on frame of reference: in many respects, women lost power in relation to men, for example, as certain jobs (delivering babies, supervising schools) were taken over by men. Yet women also gained power in (25) comparison with their previous status, owning a higher proportion of real estate, for example. In contrast, Buel and Buel's biography provides ample raw material for questioning the myth, fostered by some historians, of a colonial golden age in the (30) eighteenth century but does not give the reader much guidance in analyzing the controversy over women's status.         "69. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) examine two sides of a historiographical debate
(B) call into question an author's approach to a
historiographical debate
(C) examine one author's approach to a
historiographical debate
(D) discuss two authors' works in relationship to a
historiographical debate
(E) explain the prevalent perspective on a
historiographical debate"        "70. The author of the passage mentions the supervision of
schools primarily in order to
(A) remind readers of the role education played in
the cultural changes of the nineteenth century in
the United States
(B) suggest an area in which nineteenth-century
American women were relatively free to exercise
power
(C) provide an example of an occupation for which
accurate data about women's participation are
difficult to obtain
(D) speculate about which occupations were
considered suitable for United States women of
the nineteenth century
(E) illustrate how the answers to questions about
women's status depend on particular contexts"        "71. With which of the following characterizations of
Lebsock's contribution to the controversy concerning
women's status in the nineteenth-century United
States would the author of the passage be most likely
to agree?
(A) Lebsock has studied women from a formerly
neglected region and time period.
(B) Lebsock has demonstrated the importance of
frame of reference in answering questions about
women's status.
(C) Lebsock has addressed the controversy by
using women's current status as a frame of
reference.
(D) Lebsock has analyzed statistics about
occupations and property that were previously
ignored.
(E) Lebsock has applied recent historiographical
methods to the biography of a nineteenthcentury
woman."        "72. According to the passage, Lebsock's work differs from
Buel and Buel's work in that Lebsock's work
(A) uses a large number of primary sources
(B) ignores issues of women's legal status
(C) refuses to take a position on women's status in
the eighteenth century
(D) addresses larger historiographical issues
(E) fails to provide sufficient material to support its
claims"        "73.The passage suggests that Lebsock believes that
compared to nineteenth-century American women,
eighteenth-century American women were
(A) in many respects less powerful in relation to
men
(B) more likely to own real estate
(C) generally more economically independent
(D) more independent in conducting their private
lives
(E) less likelyto work as school superintendents"        "74.The passage suggests that Buel and Buel's biography
of Mary Fish provides evidence for which of the
following views of women's history?
(A) Women have lost power in relation to men since
the colonial era.
(B) Women of the colonial era were not as likelyto
be concerned with their status as were women
in the nineteenth century.
(C) The colonial era was not as favorable for women
as some historians have believed.
(D) Women had more economic autonomy in the
colonial era than in the nineteenth century.
(E) Women's occupations were generally more
respected in the colonial era"                                                                                               
        16.It was once believed that the brain was independent of metabolic processes occurring elsewhere in the body. In recent studies, however, we have discovered that the production and release (5) in brain neurons of the neurotransmitter serotonin (neurotransmitters are compounds that neurons use to transmit signals to other cells) depend directly on the food that the body processes. Our first studies sought to determine whether (10) the increase in serotonin observed in rats given a large injection of the amino acid tryptophan might also occur after rats ate meals that change tryptophan levels in the blood. We found that, immediately after the rats began to eat, parallel (15) elevations occurred in blood tryptophan, brain tryptophan, and brain serotonin levels. These findings suggested that the production and release of serotonin in brain neurons were normally coupled with biood-tryptophan increases. In later studies we (20) found that injecting insulin into a rat's bloodstream also caused parallel elevations in blood and brain tryptophan levels and in serotonin levels. We then decided to see whether the secretion of the animal's own insulin similarly affected serotonin production. (25) We gave the rats a carbohydrate-containing meal that we knew would elicit insulin secretion. As we had hypothesized, the blood tryptophan level and the concentrations of tryptophan and of serotonin in the brain increased after the meal. (30) Surprisingly, however, when we added a large amount of protein to the meal, brain tryptophan and serotonin levels fell. Since protein contains tryptophan, why should it depress brain tryptophan levels? The answer lies in the mechanism that (35) provides blood tryptophan to the brain cells. This same mechanism also provides the brain cells with other amino acids found in protein, such as tyrosine and leucine. The consumption of protein increases blood concentration of the other amino acids much (40) more, proportionately, than it does that of tryptophan. The more protein is in a meal, the lower is the ratio of the resulting blood-tryptophan concentration to the concentration of competing amino acids, and the more slowly is tryptophan provided to the brain. (45) Thus the more protein in a meal, the less serotonin subsequently produced and released         "75. Which of the following titles best summarizes the
contents of the passage?
(A) Neurotransmitters: Their Crucial Function in
Cellular Communication
(B) Diet and Survival: An Old Relationship
Reexamined
(C) The Blood Supply and the Brain: A Reciprocal
Dependence
(D) Amino Acids and Neurotransmitters: The
Connection between Serotonin Levels and
Tyrosine
(E) The Effects of Food Intake on the Production
and Release of Serotonin: Some Recent Findings"        "76. According to the passage, the speed with which
tryptophan is provided to the brain cells of a rat varies
with the
(A) amount of protein present in a meal
(B) concentration of serotonin in the brain before
a meal
(C) concentration of leucine in the blood rather than
with the concentration of tyrosine in the blood
after a meal
(D) concentration of tryptophan in the brain before
a meal
(E) number of serotonin-containing neurons"        "77. According to the passage, when the authors began
their first studies, they were aware that
(A) they would eventually need to design
experiments that involved feeding rats high
concentrations of protein
(B) tryptophan levels in the blood were difficult to
monitor with accuracy
(C) serotonin levels increased after rats were fed
meals rich in tryptophan
(D) there were many neurotransmitters whose
production was dependent on metabolic
processes elsewhere in the body
(E) serotonin levels increased after rats were
injected with a large amount oftryptophan"        "78. According to the passage, one reason that the authors
gave rats carbohydrates was to
(A) depress the rats' tryptophan levels
(B) prevent the rats from contracting diseases
(C) cause the rats to produce insulin >
(D) demonstrate that insulin is the most important
substance secreted by the body
(E) compare the effect of carbohydrates with the
effect of protein"        "79.Accordingto the passage, the more protein a rat
consumes, the lower will be the
(A) ratio of the rat's blood-tryptophan concentration
to the amount of serotonin produced and
released in the rat's brain
(B) ratio of the rat's blood-tryptophan concentration
to the concentration in its blood of the other
amino acids contained in the protein
(C) ratio of the rat's blood-tyrosine concentration to
its blood-leucine concentration
(D) number of neurotransmitters of any kindthat the
rat will produce and release
(E) number of amino acids the rat's blood will
contain"        "80.The authors' discussion of the ""mechanism that
provides blood tryptophan to the brain cells"" (lines
34-35) is meant to
(A) stimulate further research studies
(B) summarize an area of scientific investigation
(C) help explain why a particular research finding
was obtained
(D) provide supporting evidence for a controversial
scientific theory
(E) refutethe conclusions of a previously mentioned
research study"        "81.According to the passage, an injection of insulin was
most similar in its effect on rats to an injection of
(A) tyrosine
(B) leucine
(C) blood
(D) tryptophan
(E) protein"        "82.It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
following would be LEAST likelyto be a potential
source of aid to a patient who was not adequately
producing and releasing serotonin?
(A) Meals consisting almost exclusively of protein
(B) Meals consisting almost exclusively of
carbohydrates
(C) Meals that would elicit insulin secretion
(D) ,Meals that had very low concentrations of
tyrosine
(E) Meals that had very low concentrations of
leucine"        "83.Itcan be inferred from the passage that the authors
initially held which of the following hypotheses about
what would happen when they fed large amounts of
protein to rats?
(A) The rats' brain serotonin levels would not
decrease.
(B) The rats' brain tryptophan levels would
decrease.
(C) The rats' tyrosine levels would increase less
quickly than would their leucine levels.
(D) The rats would produce more insulin.
(E) The rats would produce neurotransmitters other
than serotonin."                                                                       
        17.Acting on the recommendation of a British government committee investigating the high incidence in white lead factories of illness among employees, most of whom were women, the Home (5) Secretary proposed in 1895 that Parliament enact legislation that would prohibit women from holding most jobs in white lead factories. Although the Women's Industrial Defence Committee (WIDC), formed in 1892 in response to earlier legislative (10) attempts to restrict women's labor, did not discount the white lead trade's potential health dangers, it opposed the proposal, viewing it as yet another instance of limiting women's work opportunities. Also opposing the proposal was the Society for (15) Promoting the Employment of Women (SPEW), which attempted to challenge it by investigating the causes of illness in white lead factories. SPEW contended, and WIDC concurred, that controllable conditions in such factories were responsible for the (20) development of lead poisoning. SPEW provided convincing evidence that lead poisoning could be avoided if workers were careful and clean and if already extant workplace safety regulations were stringently enforced. However, the Women's Trade (25) Union League (WTUL), which had ceased in the late 1880s to oppose restrictions on women's labor, supported the eventually enacted proposal, in part because safety regulations were generally not being enforced in white lead factories, where there were (30) no unions (and little prospect of any) to pressure employers to comply with safety regulations         "84. The passage suggests that WIDC differed from WTUL
in which of the following ways?
(A) WIDC believed that the existing safety
regulations were adequate to protect women's
health, whereas WTUL believed that such
regulations needed to be strengthened.
(B) WIDC believed that unions could not succeed in pressuring employers to comply with such regulations, whereas WTUL believed that unions could succeed in doing so.
(C) WIDC believed that lead poisoning in white lead factories could be avoided by controlling
conditions there, whereas WTUL believed that
lead poisoning in such factories could not be
avoided no matter how stringently safety
regulations were enforced.
(D) At the time that the legislation concerning white
lead factories was proposed, WIDC was
primarily concerned with addressing health
conditions in white lead factories, whereas
WTUL was concerned with improving working
conditions in all types of factories.
(E) Atthe time that WIDC was opposing legislative
attempts to restrict women's labor, WTUL had
already ceased to do so."        "85. Which of the following, if true, would most clearly
support the contention attributed to SPEWin
lines 17-20?
(A) Those white lead factories that most strongly
enforced regulations concerning worker safety
and hygiene had the lowest incidences of lead
poisoning among employees.
(B) The incidence of lead poisoning was much
higher among women who worked in white lead
factories than among women who worked in
other types of factories.
(C) There were many household sources of lead
that could have contributed to the incidence of
lead poisoning among women who also worked
outside the home in the late nineteenth century.
(D) White lead factories were more stringentthan
were certain other types of factories in their
enforcement of workplace safety regulations.
(E) Even brief exposure to the conditions typically
found in white lead factories could cause lead
poisoning among factory workers."        "86. The passage is primarily concerned with
(A) presenting various groups' views of the motives
of those proposing certain legislation
(B) contrasting the reasoning of various groups
concerning their positions on certain proposed
legislation
(C) tracing the process whereby certain proposed
legislation was eventually enacted
(D) assessing the success of tactics adopted by
various groups with respect to certain proposed
legislation
(E) evaluating the arguments of various groups
concerning certain proposed legislation"                                                                                                                       
        18. In 1955 Maurice Duverger published The Political Role of Women, the first behavioralist, multinational comparison of women's electoral participation ever to use election data and survey (5) data together. His study analyzed women's patterns of voting, political candidacy, and political activism in four European countries during the first half of the twentieth century. Duverger's research findings were that women voted somewhat less frequently (10) than men (the difference narrowing the longer women had the vote) and were slightly more conservative. Duverger's work set an early standard for the sensitive analysis of women's electoral activities. (15) Moreover, to Duverger's credit, he placed his findings in the context of many of the historical processes that had shaped these activities. However, since these contexts have changed over time, Duverger's approach has proved more (20) durable than his actual findings. In addition, Duverger's discussion of his findings was hampered by his failure to consider certain specific factors important to women's electoral participation at the time he collected his data: the influence (25) of political regimes, the effects of economic factors, and the ramifications of political and social relations between women and men. Given this failure, Duverger's study foreshadowed the enduring limitations of the behavioralist approach (30) to the multinational study of women's political participation.         "87. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) evaluate a research study
(B) summarize the history of a research area
(C) report new research findings
(D) reinterpret old research findings
(E) reconcile conflicting research findings"        "88. According to the passage, Duverger's study was
unique in 1955 in that it
(A) included both election data and survey data
(B) gathered data from sources never before used
in political studies
(C) included an analysis of historical processes
(D) examined the influence on voting behavior of the
relationships between women and men
(E) analyzed not only voting and political candidacy
but also other political activities"        "89. Which of the following characteristics of a country is
most clearly an example of a factor that Duverger, as
described in the passage, failed to consider in his
study?
(A) Alarge population
(B) Apredominantly Protestant population
(C) Apredominantly urban population
(D) A one-party government
(E) Location in the heart of Europe"        "90. The author implies that Duverger's actual findings are
(A) limited because they focus on only four
countries
(B) inaccurate in their description of the four
countries in the early 1950s
(C) out-of-date in that they are inapplicable in the
four countries today
(D) flawed because they are based on unsound data
(E) biased by Duverger's political beliefs"        "91.
The passage implies that, in comparing four European
countries, Duverger found that the voting rates of
women and men were most different in the country in
which women
(A) were most politically active
(B) ran for office most often
(C) held the most conservative political views
(D) had the most egalitarian relations with men
(E) had possessed the right to vote for the
shortest time"        "92.The author implies that some behavioralist research
involving the multinational study of women's political
participation that followed Duverger's study did which
of the following?
(A) Ignored Duverger's approach
(B) Suffered from faults similar to those in
Duverger's study
(C) Focused on political activism
(D) Focused on the influences of political regimes
(E) Focused on the political and social relations
between women and men"                                                                                               
        19. The majority of successful senior managers do not closely follow the classical rational model of first clarifying goals, assessing the problem, formulating options, estimating likelihoods of success, making a (5) decision, and only then taking action to implement the decision. Rather, in their day-by-day tactical maneuvers, these senior executives rely on what is vaguely termed "intuition" to manage a network of interrelated problems that require them to deal with (10) ambiguity, inconsistency, novelty, and surprise; and to integrate action into the process of thinking. Generations of writers on management have recognized that some practicing managers rely heavily on intuition. In general, however, such (15) writers display a poor grasp of what intuition is. Some see it as the opposite of rationality; others view it as an excuse for capriciousness. Isenberg's recent research on the cognitive processes of senior managers reveals that (20) managers' intuition is neither of these. Rather, senior managers use intuition in at least five distinct ways. First, they intuitively sense when a problem exists. Second, managers rely on intuition to perform well-learned behavior patterns rapidly. This (25) intuition is not arbitrary or irrational, but is based on years of painstaking practice and hands-on experience that build skills. A third function of intuition is to synthesize isolated bits of data and practice into an integrated picture, often in (30) an "Aha!" experience. Fourth, some managers use intuition as a check on the results of more rational analysis. Most senior executives are familiar with the formal decision analysis models and tools, and those who use such systematic methods (35) for reaching decisions are occasionally leery of solutions suggested by these methods which run counter to their sense of the correct course of action. Finally, managers can use intuition to bypass in-depth analysis and move rapidly to engender a (40) plausible solution. Used in this way, intuition is an almost instantaneous cognitive process in which a manager recognizes familiar patterns. One of the implications of the intuitive style of executive management is that "thinking" is (45) inseparable from acting. Since manager soften "know" what is right before they can analyze and explain it, they frequently act first and explain later. Analysis is inextricably tied to action in thinking/acting cycles, in which managers develop thoughts about their (50) companies and organizations not by analyzing a problematic situation and then acting, but by acting and analyzing in close concert. Given the great uncertainty of many of the management issues that they face, senior managers often instigate a course (55) of action simply to learn more about an issue. They then use the results of the action to develop a more complete understanding of the issue. One implication of thinking/acting cycles is that action is often part of defining the problem, not just of (60) implementing the solution.         "93. According to the passage, senior managers use
intuition in all of the following ways EXCEPT to
(A) speed up the creation of a solution to a problem
(B) identify a problem
(C) bring together disparate facts
(D) stipulate clear goals
(E) evaluate possible solutions to a problem"        "94. The passage suggests which of the following about
the ""writers on management"" mentioned in line 12?
(A) They have criticized managers for not following
the classical rational model of decision analysis.
(B) They have not based their analyses on a
sufficiently large sample of actual managers.
(C) They have relied in drawing their conclusions on
what managers say rather than on what
managers do.
(D) They have misunderstood how managers use
intuition in making business decisions.
(E) They have not acknowledged the role of intuition
in managerial practice"        "95. Which of the following best exemplifies ""an 'Aha!'
experience"" (line 30) as it is presented in the passage?
(A) A manager risks taking an action whose
outcome is unpredictable to discover whether
the action changes the problem at hand.
(B) A manager performs well-learned and familiar
behavior patterns in creative and
uncharacteristic ways to solve a problem.
(C) A manager suddenly connects seemingly
unrelated facts and experiences to create a
pattern relevant to the problem at hand.
(D) A manager rapidly identifies the methodology
used to compile data yielded by systematic
analysis.
(E) A manager swiftly decides which of several sets
of tactics to implement in order to deal with the
contingencies suggested by a problem."        "96. Accordingto the passage, the classical model of
decision analysis includes all of the following EXCEPT
(A) evaluation of a problem
(B) creation of possible solutions to a problem
(C) establishment of clear goals to be reached by
the decision
(D) action undertaken in order to discover more
information about a problem
(E) comparison of the probable effects of different
solutions to a problem"        "97. It can be inferred from the passage that which of
the following would most probably be one major
difference in behavior between ManagerX, who uses
intuition to reach decisions, and Manager Y, who uses
only formal decision analysis?
(A) Manager X analyzes first and then acts;
Manager Y does not.
(B) Manager X checks possible solutions to a
problem by systematic analysis; Manager Y
does not.
(C) Manager X takes action in order to arrive at the
solution to a problem; Manager Y does not.
(D) Manager Y draws on years of hands-on
experience in creating a solution to a problem;
Manager X does not.
(E) Manager Y depends on day-to-day tactical
maneuvering; Manager X does not."        "98. The passage provides support for which of the
following statements?
(A) Managerswho rely on intuition are more
successful than those who rely on formal
decision analysis.
(B) Managers cannot justify their intuitive decisions.
(C) Managers' intuition works contraryto their
rational and analytical skills.
(D) Logical analysis of a problem increases the
number of possible solutions.
(E) Intuition enables managersto employtheir
practical experience more efficiently."                                                                                               
        20. Frazier and Mosteller assert that medical research could be improved by a move toward larger, simpler clinical trials of medical treatments. Currently, researchers collect far more background (5) information on patients than is strictly required for their trials—substantially more than hospitals collect—thereby escalating costs of data collection, storage, and analysis. Although limiting information collection could increase the risk that (10) researchers will overlook facts relevant to a study, Frazier and Mosteller contend that such risk, never entirely eliminable from research, would still be small in most studies. Only in research on entirely new treatments are new and unexpected variables (15) likely to arise. Frazier and Mosteller propose not only that researchers limit data collection on individual patients but also that researchers enroll more patients in clinical trials, thereby obtaining a more (20) representative sample of the total population with the disease under study. Often researchers restrict study participation to patients who have no ailments besides those being studied. A treatment judged successful under these ideal conditions can (25) then be evaluated under normal conditions. Broadening the range of trial participants, Frazier and Mosteller suggest, would enable researchers to evaluate a treatment's efficacy for diverse patients under various conditions and to evaluate its (30) effectiveness for different patient subgroups. For example, the value of a treatment for a progressive disease mayvary according to a patient's stage of disease. Patients' ages may also affect a treatment's efficacy.         "99. The passage is primarily concerned with
(A) identifying two practices in medical research
that may affect the accuracy of clinical trials
(B) describing aspects of medical research that
tend to drive up costs
(C) evaluating an analysis of certain shortcomings
of current medical research practices
(D) describing proposed changes to the ways in
which clinical trials are conducted
(E) explaining how medical researchers have
traditionally conducted clinical trials and how
such trials are likely to change"        "100. Which of the following can be inferred from the
passage about a study of the category of patients
referred to in lines 21-23?
(A) Its findings might have limited applicability.
(B) It would be prohibitively expensive in its attempt
to create ideal conditions.
(C) It would be the best way to sample the total
population of potential patients.
(D) It would allow researchers to limit information
collection without increasing the risk that
important variables could be overlooked.
(E) Its findings would be more accurate if it
concerned treatments for a progressive disease
than if it concerned treatments for a
nonprogressive disease."        "101. Itcan be inferred from the passage that a study
limited to patients like those mentioned in lines 21-23
would have which of the following advantages over the
kind of study proposed by Frazier and Mosteller?
(A) Itwould yield more data and its findings would
be more accurate.
(B) Itwould cost less in the long term, though it
would be more expensive in its initial stages.
(C) It would limit the number of variables
researchers would need to consider when
evaluatingthe treatment under study.
(D) It would help researchers to identify subgroups
of patients with secondary conditions that might
also be treatable.
(E) It would enable researchers to assess the value
of an experimental treatment for the average
patient"        "102. The author mentions patients' ages (line 33) primarily
in order to
(A) identify the most critical variable differentiating
subgroups of patients
(B) cast doubt on the advisability of implementing
Frazier and Mosteller's proposals about medical
research
(C) indicate whyprogressive diseases mayrequire
different treatments at different stages
(D) illustrate a point aboutthe value of enrolling a
wide range of patients in clinical trials
(E) substantiate an argumentabout the problems
inherent in enrolling large numbers of patients in
clinical trials"        "103. According to the passage, which of the following
describes a result of the way in which researchers
generally conduct clinical trials?
(A) They expend resources on the storage of
information likely to be irrelevant to the study
they are conducting.
(B) They sometimes compromise the accuracy of
their findings by collecting and analyzing more
information than is strictly required for their
trials.
(C) They avoid the risk of overlooking variablesthat
might affect their findings, even though doing so
raises their research costs.
(D) Because they attempt to analyze too much
information, they overlook facts that could
emerge as relevant to their studies.
(E) In orderto approximate the conditions typical of
medical treatment, they base their methods of
information collection on those used by hospitals."                                                                                                       
        21.According to a recent theory, Archean-age gold-quartz vein systems were formed more than two billion years ago from magmatic fluids that originated from molten granite-like bodies deep (5)beneath the surface of the Earth. This theory is contrary to the widely held view that the systems were deposited from metamorphic fluids, that is, from fluids that formed during the dehydration of wet sedimentary rocks. (10)The recently developed theory has considerable practical importance. Most of the gold deposits discovered during the original gold rushes were exposed at the Earth's surface and were found because they had shed trails of alluvial gold (15)that were easily traced by simple prospecting methods. Although these same methods still lead to an occasional discovery, most deposits not yet discovered have gone undetected because they are buried and have no surface expression. (20)The challenge in exploration is therefore to unravel the subsurface geology of an area and pinpoint the position of buried minerals. Methods widely used today include analysis of aerial images that yield a broad geological overview; geophysical (25)techniques that provide data on the magnetic, electrical, and mineralogical properties of the rocks being investigated; and sensitive chemical tests that are able to detect the subtle chemical halos that often envelop mineralization. However, (30)none of these high-technology methods are of any value if the sites to which they are applied have never mineralized, and to maximize the chances of discovery the explorer must therefore pay particular attention to selecting the ground formations most (35)likely to be mineralized. Such ground selection relies to varying degrees on conceptual models, which take into account theoretical studies of relevant factors. These models are constructed primarily from (40)empirical observations of known mineral deposits and from theories of ore-forming processes. The explorer uses the models to identify those geological features that are critical to the formation of the mineralization being modeled, and then tries (45)to select areas for exploration that exhibit as many of the critical features as possible.         "104. The author is primarily concerned with
(A) advocating a return to an older methodology
(B) explaining the importance of a recent theory
(C) enumerating differences between two widely
used methods
(D) describing events leading to a discovery
(E) challengingthe assumptions on which a theory
is based"        "105. According to the passage, the widely held viewof
Archean-age gold-quartz vein systems is that such
systems
(A) were formed from metamorphic fluids
(B) originated in molten granite-like bodies
(C) were formed from alluvial deposits
(D) generally have surface expression
(E) are not discoverable through chemical tests"        "106. The passage implies that which of the following steps
would be the first performed by explorers who wish to
maximize their chances of discovering gold?
(A) Surveying several sites known to have been
formed more than two billion years ago
(B) Limiting exploration to sites known to have been
formed from metamorphic fluid
(C) Using an appropriate conceptual model to select
a site for further exploration
(D) Using geophysical methods to analyze rocks
over a broad area
(E) Limiting exploration to sites where alluvial gold
has previously been found"        "107. Which of the following statements about discoveries
of gold deposits is supported by information in the
passage?
(A) The number of gold discoveries made annually
has increased between the time of the original
gold rushes and the present.
(B) New discoveries of gold deposits are likely to be
the result of exploration techniques designed to
locate buried mineralization.
(C) It is unlikelythat newly discovered gold deposits
will ever yield as much as did those deposits
discovered during the original gold rushes.
(D) Modern explorers are divided on the question of
the utilityof simple prospecting methods as a
source of new discoveries of gold deposits.
(E) Models based on the theory that gold originated
from magmatic fluids have already led to new
discoveries of gold deposits"        "108. Itcan be inferred from the passage that which of the
following is easiest to detect?
(A) A gold-quartz vein system originating in
magmatic fluids
(B) A gold-quartz vein system originating in
metamorphic fluids
(C) A gold deposit that is mixed with granite
(D) A gold deposit that has shed alluvial gold
(E) A gold deposit that exhibits chemical halos"        "109. The theory mentioned in lines 1-5 relates to the
conceptual models discussed in the passage in which
of the following ways?
(A) It may furnish a valid account of ore-forming
processes, and, hence, can support conceptual
models that have great practical significance.
(B) It suggests that certain geological formations,
long believed to be mineralized, are in fact
mineralized, thus confirming current conceptual
models.
(C) It suggests that there may not be enough
similarity across Archean-age gold-quartz vein
systems to warrant the formulation of
conceptual models.
(D) It corrects existing theories about the chemical
halos of gold deposits, and thus provides a basis
for correcting current conceptual models.
(E) It suggests that simple prospecting methods still
have a higher success rate in the discovery of
gold deposits than do more modern methods."        "110. According to the passage, methods of exploring for
gold that are widely used today are based on which of
the following facts?
(A) Most of the Earth's remaining gold deposits are
still molten.
(B) Most of the Earth's remaining gold deposits are
exposed at the surface.
(C) Mostof the Earth's remaining gold deposits are
buried and have no surface expression.
(D) Onlyone type of gold deposit warrants
exploration, since the other types of gold
deposits are found in regions difficultto reach.
(E) Onlyone type of gold deposit warrants
exploration, since the other types of gold
deposits are unlikely to yield concentrated
quantities of gold."                                                                                       
        22.while the most abundant and dominant species within a particular ecosystem is often crucial in perpetuating the ecosystem, a "keystone" species, here defined as one whose effects are much larger (5)than would be predicted from its abundance, can also play a vital role. But because complex species interactions may be involved, identifying a keystone species by removing the species and observing changes in the ecosystem is problematic. It might (10)seem that certain traits would clearly define a species as a keystone species; for example, Pisaster ochraceus is often a keystone predator because it consumes and suppresses mussel populations, which in the absence of this starfish (15)can be a dominant species. But such predation on a dominant or potentially dominant species occurs in systems that do as well as in systems that do not have species that play keystone roles. Moreover, whereas P. ochraceusoccupies an unambiguous (20)keystone role on wave-exposed rocky headlands, in more wave-sheltered habitats the impact of P. ochraceus predation is weak or nonexistent, and at certain sites sand burial is responsible for eliminating mussels. Keystone status appears to (25)depend on context, whether of particular geography or of such factors as community diversity (for example, a reduction in species diversity may thrust more of the remaining species into keystone roles) and length of species (30)interaction (since newly arrived species in particular may dramatically affect ecosystems).         "111. The passage mentions which of the following as a
factor that affects the role of P. ochraceus as a
keystone species within different habitats?
(A) The degree to which the habitat is sheltered
from waves
(B) The degree to which other animals within a
habitat prey on mussels
(C) The fact that mussel populations are often not
dominant within some habitats occupied by
P. ochraceus
(D) The size of the P. ochraceus population within
the habitat
(E) The fact that there is great species diversity
within some habitats occupied by P. ochraceus"        "112. Which of the following hypothetical experiments most
clearly exemplifies the method of identifying species'
roles that the author considers problematic?
(A) Apopulation of seals in an Arctic habitat is
counted in order to determine whether it is the
dominant species in that ecosystem.
(B) Aspecies of fish that is a keystone species in
one marine ecosystem is introduced into
another marine ecosystem to see whether the
species will come to occupy a keystone role.
(C) In order to determine whether a species of
monkey is a keystone species within a particular
ecosystem, the monkeys are removed from that
ecosystem and the ecosystem is then studied.
(D) Different mountain ecosystems are compared
to determine how geography affects a particular
species' ability to dominate its ecosystem.
(E) In a grassland experiencing a changing climate,
patterns of species extinction are traced in
order to evaluate the effect of climate changes
on keystone species in that grassland"        "113. Which of the following, if true, would most clearly
support the argument about keystone status advanced
in the last sentence of the passage (lines 24-31)?
(A) A species of bat is primarily responsible for
keeping insect populations within an ecosystem
low, and the size of the insect population in turn
affects bird species within that ecosystem.
(B) A species of iguana occupies a keystone role on
certain tropical islands, but does not playthat
role on adjacent tropical islands that are
inhabited by a greater number of animal species.
(C) Close observation of a savannah ecosystem
reveals that more species occupy keystone
roles within that ecosystem than biologists had
previously believed.
(D) As a keystone species of bee becomes more
abundant, it has a larger effect on the
ecosystem it inhabits.
(E) A species of moth that occupies a keystone role
in a prairie habitat develops coloration patterns
that camouflage it from potential predators."        "114. The passage suggests which of the following about
the identification of a species as a keystone species?
(A) Such an identification depends primarily on the
species' relationship to the dominant species.
(B) Such an identification can best be madeby
removing the species from a particular
ecosystem and observing changes that occur in
the ecosystem.
(C) Such an identification is likely to be less reliable
as an ecosystem becomes less diverse.
(D) Such an identification seems to depend on
various factors within the ecosystem.
(E) Such an identification can best be made by
observing predation behavior."                                                                                                               
        "23. After evidence was obtained in the 1920s that the universe is expanding, it became reasonable to ask: Will the universe continue to expand indefinitely, or is there enough mass in it for the
(5) mutual attraction of its constituents to bring this expansion to a halt? It can be calculated that the critical density of matter needed to brake the expansion and ""close"" the universe is equivalent to three hydrogen atoms per cubic meter. But the (10) density of the observable universe—luminous matter in the form of galaxies—comes to only a fraction of this. If the expansion of the universe is to stop, there must be enough invisible matter in the universe to exceed the luminous matter in density
(15) by a factor of roughly 70.
Our contribution to the search for this ""missing matter"" has been to study the rotational velocity of galaxies at various distances from their center of rotation. It has been known for some time that (20) outside the bright nucleus of a typical spiral galaxy luminosity falls off rapidly with distance from the center. If luminosity were a true indicator of mass, most of the mass would be concentrated toward the center. Outside the nucleus the rotational (25) velocitywould decrease geometricallywith distance from the center, in conformity with Kepler's law. Instead we have found that the rotational velocity in spiral galaxies either remains constant with increasing distance from the center or increases (30) slightly. This unexpected result indicates that the falloff in luminous mass with distance from the center is balanced by an increase in nonluminous mass.
Ourfindings suggest that as much as 90 (35) percent of the mass of the universe is not radiating at any wavelength with enough intensity to be detected on the Earth. Such dark matter could be in the form of extremely dim stars of low mass, of large planets like Jupiter, or of black holes, (40) either small or massive. While it has not yet been determined whether this mass is sufficient to close the universe, some physicists consider it significant that estimates are converging on the critical value. "        "115. The passage is primarily concerned with
(A) defending a controversial approach
(B) criticizing an accepted view
(C) summarizing research findings
(D) contrasting competing theories
(E) describing an innovative technique"        "116. The authors' study indicates that, in comparison with the outermost regions of a typical spiral galaxy, the region just outside the nucleus can be characterized as having
(A) higher rotational velocity and higher luminosity
(B) lower rotational velocity and higher luminosity
(C) lower rotational velocity and lower luminosity
(D) similar rotational velocity and higher luminosity
(E) similar rotational velocity and similar luminosity"        "117. The authors' suggestion that ""as much as 90 percent
of the mass of the universe is not radiating at any
wavelength with enough intensity to be detected on
the Earth"" (lines 34-37) would be most weakened if
which of the following were discovered to be true?
(A) Spiral galaxies are less common than types of
galaxies that contain little nonluminous matter.
(B) Luminous and nonluminous matter are
composed of the same basic elements.
(C) The bright nucleus of a typical spiral galaxy also
contains some nonluminous matter.
(D) The density of the observable universe is
greater than most previous estimates have
suggested.
(E) Some galaxies do not rotate or rotate too slowly
for their rotational velocity to be measured"        "118. It can be inferred from information presented inthe
passage that if the density of the universe were
equivalent to significantly less than three hydrogen
atoms per cubic meter, which of the following would
be true as a consequence?
(A) Luminosity would be a true indicator of mass.
(B) Differentregions in spiral galaxies would rotate
at the same velocity.
(C) The universe would continue to expand
indefinitely.
(D) The density of the invisible matter in the
universe would have to be more than 70 times
the density of the luminous matter.
(E) More of the invisible matter in spiral galaxies
would have to be located in their nuclei than in
their outer regions"        "119. The authors propose all of the following as possibly
contributing to the ""missing matter"" in spiral galaxies
EXCEPT
(A) massive black holes
(B) small black holes
(C) small, dim stars
(D) massive stars
(E) large planets"                                                                                                       
        24. Jon Clark's study of the effect of the modernization of a telephone exchange on exchange maintenance work and workers is a solid contribution to a debate that encompasses two (5) lively issues in the history and sociology of technology: technological determinism and social constructivism. Clark makes the point that the characteristics of a technology have a decisive influence on job skills (10) and work organization. Put more strongly, technology can be a primary determinant of social and managerial organization. Clark believes this possibility has been obscured by the recent sociological fashion, exemplified by Braverman's (15) analysis, that emphasizes the way machinery reflects social choices. For Braverman, the shape of a technological system is subordinate to the manager's desire to wrest control of the labor process from the workers. Technological change is (20) construed as the outcome of negotiations among interested parties who seek to incorporate their own interests into the design and configuration of the machinery. This position represents the new mainstream called social constructivism. (25) The constructivists gain acceptance by misrepresenting technological determinism: technological determinists are supposed to believe, for example, that machinery imposes appropriate forms of order on society. The alternative to (30) constructivism, in other words, is to view technology as existing outside society, capable of directly influencing skills and work organization. Clark refutes the extremes of the constructivists by both theoretical and empirical arguments. (35) Theoretically he defines "technology" in terms of relationships between social and technical variables. Attempts to reduce the meaning of technology to cold, hard metal are bound to fail, for machinery is just scrap unless it is organized functionally and (40) supported by appropriate systems of operation and maintenance. At the empirical level Clark shows how a change at the telephone exchange from maintenance-intensive electromechanical switches to semielectronic switching systems altered work (45) tasks, skills, training opportunities, administration, and organization of workers. Some changes Clark attributes to the particular way management and labor unions negotiated the introduction of the technology, whereas others are seen as arising from (50) the capabilities and nature of the technology itself. Thus Clark helps answer the question: "When is social choice decisive and when are the concrete characteristics of technology more important?"         "120. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) advocate a more positive attitude toward
technological change
(B) discuss the implications for employees of the
modernization of a telephone exchange
(C) consider a successful challenge to the
constructivist view of technological change
(D) challenge the position of advocates of
technological determinism
(E) suggest that the social causes of technological
change should be studied in real situations"        "121. Which of the following statements about the
modernization of the telephone exchange is supported
by information in the passage?
(A) The new technology reduced the role of
managers in labor negotiations.
(B) The modernization was implemented without the
consent of the employees directly affected by it.
(C) The modernization had an impact that went
significantly beyond maintenance routines.
(D) Some of the maintenance workers felt victimized
by the new technology.
(E) The modernization gave credence to the view of
advocates of social constructivism"        "122. Which of the following most accurately describes
Clark's opinion of Braverman's position?
(A) He respects its wide-ranging popularity.
(B) He disapproves of its misplaced emphasis on
the influence of managers.
(C) He admires the consideration it gives to the
attitudes of the workers affected.
(D) He is concerned about its potential to impede
the implementation of new technologies.
(E) He is sympathetic to its concern about the
impact of modern technology on workers"        "123. The information in the passage suggests that which
of the following statements from hypothetical
sociological studies of change in industry most clearly
exemplifies the social constructivists' version of
technological determinism?
(A) It is the available technology that determines
workers' skills, rather than workers' skills
influencing the application of technology.
(B) All progress in industrial technology grows out
of a continuing negotiation between
technological possibility and human need.
(C) Some organizational change is caused by
people; some is caused by computer chips.
(D) Most major technological advances in industry
have been generated through research and
development.
(E) Some industrial technology eliminates jobs, but
educated workers can create whole new skills
areas by the adaptation of the technology."        "124. The information in the passage suggests that Clark
believes that which of the following would be true if
social constructivism had not gained widespread
acceptance?
(A) Businesses would be more likely to modernize
without considering the social consequences of
their actions.
(B) There would be greater understanding of the
role played by technology in producing social
change.
(C) Businesses would be less likely to understand
the attitudes of employees affected by
modernization.
(D) Modernization would have occurred at a slower
rate.
(E) Technology would have played a greater part in
determining the role of business in society."        "125. According to the passage, constructivists employed
which of the following to promote their argument?
(A) Empirical studies of business situations involving
technological change
(B) Citation of managers supportive of their position
(C) Construction of hypothetical situations that
support their view
(D) Contrasts of their view with a misstatement of
an opposing view
(E) Descriptions of the breadth of impact of
technological change"        "126. The author of the passage uses the expression ""are
supposed to"" in line 27 primarily in order to
(A) suggest that a contention made by
constructivists regarding determinists is
inaccurate
(B) define the generally accepted position of
determinists regarding the implementation of
technology
(C) engage in speculation about the motivation of
determinists
(D) lend support to a comment critical of the
position of determinists
(E) contrast the historical position of determinists
with their position regarding the exchange
modernization"        "127. Which of the following statements about Clark's study
of the telephone exchange can be inferred from
information in the passage?
(A) Clark's reason for undertaking the study was to
undermine Braverman's analysis of the function
of technology.
(B) Clark's study suggests that the implementation
of technology should be discussed in the context
of conflict between labor and management.
(C) Clark examinedthe impact of changes in the
technology of switching at the exchange in
terms of overall operations and organization.
(D) Clark concluded that the implementation of new
switching technology was equally beneficial to
management and labor.
(E) Clark's analysis of the change in switching
systems applies only narrowly to the situation at
the particular exchange that he studied"                                                                               
        25. All the cells in a particular plant start out with the same complement of genes. How then can these cells differentiate and form structures as different as roots, stems, leaves, and fruits? The (5) answer is that only a small subset of the genes in a particular kind of cell are expressed, or turned on, at a given time. This is accomplished by a complex system of chemical messengers that in plants include hormones and other regulatory molecules. (10) Five major hormones have been identified: auxin, abscisic acid, cytokinin, ethylene, and gibberellin. Studies of plants have now identified a new class of regulatory molecules called oligosaccharins. Unlike the oligosaccharins, the five well-known (15) plant hormones are pleiotropic rather than specific; that is, each has more than one effect on the growth and development of plants. The five have so many simultaneous effects that they are not very useful in artificially controlling the growth of (20) crops. Auxin, for instance, stimulates the rate of cell elongation, causes shoots to grow up and roots to grow down, and inhibits the growth of lateral shoots. Auxin also causes the plant to develop a vascular system, to form lateral roots, and to (25) produce ethylene. The pleiotropy of the five well-studied plant hormones is somewhat analogous to that of certain hormones in animals. For example, hormones from the hypothalamus in the brain stimulate the anterior (30) lobe of the pituitary gland to synthesize and release many different hormones, one of which stimulates the release of hormones from the adrenal cortex. These hormones have specific effects on target organs all over the body. One hormone stimulates (35) the thyroid gland, for example, another the ovarian follicle cells, and so forth. In other words, there is a hierarchy of hormones. Such a hierarchy may also exist in plants. Oligo saccharins are fragments of the cell wall released (40) by enzymes: different enzymes release different oligosaccharins. There are indications that pleiotropic plant hormones may actually function by activating the enzymes that release these other, more specific chemical messengers from the cell wall.         "128. According to the passage, the five well-known plant
hormones are not useful in controlling the growth of
crops because
(A) it is not known exactly what functions the
hormones perform
(B) each hormone has various effects on plants
(C) none of the hormones can function without
the others
(D) each hormone has different effects on different
kinds of plants
(E) each hormone works on only a small subset of a
cell's genes at any particular time"        "129. The passage suggests that the place of hypothalamic
hormones in the hormonal hierarchies of animals is
similar to the place of which of the following in plants?
(A) Plant cell walls
(B) The complement of genes in each plant cell
(C) Asubset of a plant cell's gene complement
(D) The five major hormones
(E) The oligosaccharins"        "130. The passage suggests that which of the following is a
function likely to be performed by an oligosaccharin?
(A) To stimulate a particular plant cell to become
part of a plant's root system
(B) To stimulate the walls of a particular cell to
produce other oligosaccharins
(C) To activate enzymes that release specific
chemical messengers from plant cell walls
(D) To duplicate the gene complement in a particular
plant cell
(E) To produce multiple effects on a particular
subsystem of plant cells"        "131. The author mentions specific effects that auxin has on
plant development in order to illustrate the
(A) point that some of the effects of plant hormones
can be harmful
(B) way in which hormones are produced by plants
(C) hierarchical nature of the functioning of plant
hormones
(D) differences among the best-known plant
hormones
(E) concept of pleiotropy as it is exhibited by plant
hormones"        "132. According to the passage, which of the following best
describes a function performed by oligosaccharins?
(A) Regulating the daily functioning of a .plant's cells
(B) Interacting with one another to produce different
chemicals
(C) Releasing specific chemical messengers from a
plant's cell walls
(D) Producing the hormones that cause plant cells
to differentiate to perform different functions
(E) Influencing the development of a plant's cells by
controlling the expression of the cells' genes"        "133. The passage suggests that, unlike the pleiotropic
hormones, oligosaccharins could be used effectively to
(A) trace the passage of chemicals through the
walls of cells
(B) pinpoint functions of other plant hormones
(C) artificially control specific aspects of the
development of crops
(D) alter the complement of genes in the cells of
plants
(E) alterthe effects of the five major hormones on
plant development"                                                                                               
        26. In the two decades between 1910 and 1930, more than ten percent of the black population of the United States left the South, where the preponderance of the black population had been (5) located, and migrated to northern states, with the largest number moving, it is claimed, between 1916 and 1918. It has been frequently assumed, but not proved, that the majority of the migrants in what has come to be called the Great Migration (10) came from rural areas and were motivated by two concurrent factors: the collapse of the cotton industry following the boll weevil infestation, which began in 1898, and increased demand in the North for labor following the cessation of European (15) immigration caused by the outbreak of the First World War in 1914. This assumption has led to the conclusion that the migrants' subsequent lack of economic mobility in the North is tied to rural background, a background that implies unfamiliarity (20) with urban living and a lack of industrial skills. But the question of who actually left the South has never been rigorously investigated. Although numerous investigations document an exodus from rural southern areas to southern cities prior to the (25) Great Migration, no one has considered whether the same migrants then moved on to northern cities. In 1910 more than 500,000 black workers, or ten percent of the black workforce, reported themselves to be engaged in "manufacturing and mechanical (30) pursuits," the federal census category roughly encompassing the entire industrial sector. The Great Migration could easily have been made up entirely of this group and their families. It is perhaps surprising to argue that an employed population (35) could be enticed to move, but an explanation lies in the labor conditions then prevalent in the South. Aboutthirty-five percent of the urban black population in the South was engaged in skilled trades. Some were from the old artisan class of (40) slavery—blacksmiths, masons, carpenters—which had had a monopoly of certain trades, but they were gradually being pushed out by competition, mechanization, and obsolescence. The remaining sixty-five percent, more recently urbanized, worked in (45) newly developed industries—tobacco, lumber, coal and iron manufacture, and railroads. Wages in the South, however, were low, and black workers were aware, through labor recruiters and the black press, that they could earn more even as unskilled 416 (50) workers in the North than they could as artisans in the South. After the boll weevil infestation, urban black workers faced competition from the continuing influx of both black and white rural workers, who were driven to undercut the wages (55) formerly paid for industrial jobs. Thus, a move north would be seen as advantageous to a group that was already urbanized and steadily employed, and the easy conclusion tying their subsequent economic problems in the North to their rural background (60) comes into question.         "134. The author indicates explicitly that which of the
following records has been a source of information in
her investigation?
(A) United States Immigration Service reports from
1914 to 1930
(B) Payrolls of southern manufacturing firms
between 1910 and 1930
(C) The volume of cotton exports between 1898
and 1910
(D) The federal census of 1910
(E) Advertisements of labor recruiters appearing in
southern newspapers after 1910"        "135. In the passage, the author anticipates which of the
following as a possible objection to her argument?
(A) It is uncertain how many people actually
migrated during the Great Migration.
(B) The eventual economic status of the Great
Migration migrants has not been adequately
traced.
(C) It is not likely that people with steady jobs would
have reason to move to another area of the
country.
(D) It is not true that the term ""manufacturing and
mechanical pursuits"" actually encompasses the
entire industrial sector.
(E) Of the African American workers living in
southern cities, only those in a small number of
trades were threatened by obsolescence"        "136. According to the passage, which of the following is
true of wages in southern cities in 1910?
(A) They were being pushed lower as a result of
increased competition.
(B) They had begun to rise so that southern
industry could attract rural workers.
(C) They had increased for skilled workers but
decreased for unskilled workers.
(D) They had increased in large southern cities but
decreased in small southern cities.
(E) They had increased in newlydeveloped
industries but decreased in the older trades."        "137. The author cites each of the following as possible
influences in an African American worker's decision to
migrate north inthe Great Migration EXCEPT
(A) wage levels in northern cities
(B) labor recruiters
(C) competition from rural workers
(D) voting rights in northern states
(E) the African American press"        "138. It can be inferred from the passage that the ""easy
conclusion"" mentioned-in line 58 is based on which of
the following assumptions?
(A) People who migrate from rural areas to large
cities usually do so for economic reasons.
(B) Most people who leave rural areasto take jobs
in cities return to rural areas as soon as it is
financially possible for them to do so.
(C) People with rural backgrounds are less likely to
succeed economically in cities than are those
with urban backgrounds.
(D) Most people who were once skilled workers are
not willing to work as unskilled workers.
(E) People who migrate from their birthplaces to
other regions of a country seldom undertake a
second migration."        "139. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) support an alternative to an accepted
methodology
(B) present evidence that resolves a contradiction
(C) introduce a recently discovered source of
information
(D) challenge a widely accepted explanation
(E) argue that a discarded theory deserves new
attention"                                                                                               
        "2nd 1.The Gross Domestic Product(GOP),which measures the dollar value of finished goods and services produced by an economy during a given period, serves as the chief indicator of the
(5)  economic well-being of the United States. The GOP assumes that the economic significance of goods and services lies solely in their price, and that these goods and services add to the national well-being, not because of any intrinsic value they may
(l0)  possess, but simply because they were produced and bought. Additionally, only those goods and services involved in monetary transactions are included in the GOP. Thus, the GOP ignores the economic utility of such things as a clean
(l5)  environment and cohesive families and communities. It is therefore not merely coincidental, since national policies in capitalist and non capitalist countries alike are dependent on indicators such as the GOP, that both the environment and the social
(20)  structure have been eroded in recent decades. Not only does the GOP mask this erosion, it can actually portray it as an economic gain: an oil spill off a coastal region ""adds to the GOP because it generates commercial activity. In short, the nation's
(25)  central measure of economic well-being works like a calculating machine that adds but cannot subtract.
"        "1.  The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A)  identify ways in which the GOP could be modified so that it would serve as a more accurate indicator of the economic well-being of the United States
(B)  suggest that the GOP, in spite of certain shortcomings, is still the most reliable indicator of the economic well-being of the United States
(C)  examine crucial shortcomings of the GOP as an indicator of the economic well-being of the United States
(D)  argue that the growth of the United States economy in recent decades has diminished the effectiveness of the GOP as an indicator of the nation's economic well-being
(E)  discuss how the GOP came to be used as the primary indicator of the economic well-being of the United States
"        "2.  Which of the following best describes the function of the second sentence of the passage in the context of the passage as a whole?
(A)  It describes an assumption about the GOP that is defended in the course of the passage.
(B)  It contributes to a discussion of the origins of the GOP.
(C)  It clarifies a common misconception about the use of the GOP.
(D)  It identifies a major flaw in the GOP.
(E) It suggests a revision to the method of calculating the GOP.
"        "3  It can be inferred that the author of the passage would agree with which of the following about the “economic significance” of those goods and services that are included in the GDP？
（A） It is a comprehensive indicator of a nation’s economic well-being.
（B） It is not accurately captured by the price of those goods and services.
（C） It is usually less than the intrinsic value of those goods and services.
（D） It is more difficult to calculate than the economic significance of those goods and services that are not included in the GDP.
（E） It is calculated differently in capitalist countries than in noncapitalist countries.
"        "4.  the comparison of the GDP to a calculating machine serves to do which of the following?
(A)  Refute an assertion that the calculations involved in the GOP are relatively complex in nature
(B)  Indicate that the GOP is better suited to record certain types of monetary transactions than others
(C)  Suggest that it is likely that the GOP will be supplanted by other, more sophisticated economic indicators
(D)  Illustrate the point that the GOP has no way of measuring the destructive impact of such things as oil spills on the nation's economic well-being
(E)  Exemplify an assertion that the GOP tends to exaggerate the amount of commercial activity generated by such things as oil spills

"        "5. The passage implies that national policies that rely heavily on economic indicators such as the GDP tend to
(A)  Become increasingly capitalistic in nature.
(B)  disregard the economic importance of environmental and social factors that do not involve monetary transactions
(C)  overestimate the amount of commercial activity generated ty environmental disasters
(D)  overestimate the economic significance of cohesive families and communities
(E)  assume that the economic significance of goods and services does not lie solely in the price of those goods and services.

"        "6.  It can be inferred that the aushor of the passage would agree with which of the following assessments of the GDP as an indicator of the economic well-being of the United States？
(A)  It masks social and environmental erosion more fully than the chief economic indicators of other nations.
(B)  It is based on inaccurate estimations of the prices of many goods and services.
(C)  It overestimates the amount of commercial activity that is generated in the United States.
(D) It is conducive to error because it conflates distinct types of economic activity.
(E)  It does not take into account the economic utility of certain environmental and social conditions.
"                                                                                               
        "2.Coral reefs are one of the most fragile, biologically complex, and diverse marine ecosystems on Earth. This ecosystem is one of the fascinating paradoxes of the biosphere: how do clear, and thus nutrient¬
(5)  poor, waters support such prolific and productive communities? Part of the answer lies within the tissues of the corals themselves. Symbiotic cells of algae known as zooxanthellae carry out photosynthesis using the metabolic wastes of the
(10)  corals, there by producing food for themselves, for their coral hosts, and even for other members of the reef community. This symbiotic process allows organisms in the reef community to use sparse nutrient resources efficiently.
(15)  Unfortunately for coral reefs, however, a variety of human activities are causing worldwide degradation of shallow marine habitats by adding nutrients to the water. Agriculture, slash-and-burn land clearing, sewage disposal, and manufacturing
(20)  that creates waste by-products all increase nutrient loads in these waters. Typical symptoms of reef decline are destabilized herbivore populations and an increasing abundance of algae and filter-feeding animals. Declines in reef communities are
(25)  consistent with observations that nutrient input is increasing in direct proportion to growing human populations, thereby threatening reef communities sensitive to subtle changes in nutrient input to their waters.
"        "7.  The passage is primarily concerned with
(A)  describing the effects of human activities on algae in coral reefs
(B)  explaining how human activities are posing a threat to coral reef communities
(C)  discussing the process by which coral reefs deteriorate in nutrient-poor waters
(D)  explaining how coral reefs produce food for themselves
(E)  describing the abundance of algae and filter -feeding animals in coral reef areas
"        "8.  The passage suggests which of the following about coral reef communities?
(A)  Coral reef communities may actually be more likely to thrive in waters that are relatively low in nutrients.
(B)  The nutrients on which coral reef communities thrive are only found in shallow waters.
(C)  Human population growth has led to changing ocean temperatures, which threatens coral reef communities.
(D)  The growth of coral reef communities tends to destabilize underwater herbivore populations.
(E)  Coral reef communities are more complex and diverse than most ecosystems located on dry land.
"        "9.  The author refers to ""filter-feeding animals"" (lines 23-24) in order to
(A)  provide an example of a characteristic sign of reef deterioration
(B)  explain how reef communities acquire sustenance for survival
(C)  identify a factor that helps herbivore populations thrive
(D)  indicate a cause of decreasing nutrient input in waters that reefs inhabit
(E)  identify members of coral reef communities that rely on coral reefs for nutrients
"        "10.  According to the passage, which of the following is a factor that is threatening the survival of coral reef communities?
(A)  The waters they inhabit contain few nutrient resources.
(B)  A decline in nutrient input is disrupting their symbiotic relationship with zooxanthellae.
(C)  The degraded waters of their marine habitats have reduced their ability to carry out photosynthesis.
(D)  They are too biologically complex to survive in habitats with minimal nutrient input.
(E)  Waste by-products result in an increase in nutrient input to reef communities.
"        "11. It can be inferred from the passage that the author describes coral reef communities as paradoxical most
likely for which of the following reasons?
(A) They are thriving even though human activities
have depleted the nutrients in their environment.
(B) They are able to survive in spite of an
overabundance of algae inhabiting their waters.
(C) They are able to survive in an environment with
limited food resources.
(D) Their metabolic wastes contribute to the
degradation of the waters that they inhabit.
(E) They are declining even when the water
surrounding them remains clear"        "11.  It can be inferred from the passage that the author describes coral reef communities as paradoxical most likely for which of the following reasons?
(A)  They are thriving even though human activities have depleted the nutrients in their environment.
(B)  They are able to survive in spite of an overabundance of algae in habiting their waters.
(C)  They are able to survive in an environment with limited food resources .
(D)  Their metabolic wastes contribute to the degradation of the waters that they inhabit.
(E)  They are declining even when the water surrounding them remains clear.
"                                                                                               
        "3.Although genetic mutations in bacteria and viruses can lead to epidemics, some epidemics are caused by bacteria and viruses that have undergone no significant genetic change. In analyzing the latter,
(5)  scientists have discovered the importance of social and ecological factors to epidemics. Poliomyelitis, for example, emerged as an epidemic in the United States in the twentieth century; by then, modern sanitation was able to delay exposure to polio until
(10)  adolescence or adulthood, at which time polio infection produced paralysis. Previously, infection had occurred during infancy, when it typically provided lifelong immunity without paralysis. Thus, the hygiene that helped prevent typhoid epidemics
(15)  indirectly fostered a paralytic polio epidemic. Another example is Lyme disease, which is caused by bacteria that are transmitted by deer ticks. It occurred only sporadically during the late nineteenth century but has recently become
(20)  prevalent in parts of the United States, largely due to an increase in the deer population that occurred simultaneously with the growth of the suburbs and increased outdoor recreational activities in the deer's habitat. Similarly, an outbreak of dengue
(25)  hemorrhagic fever became an epidemic in Asia in the 1950s because of ecological changes that caused Aedes aegypti, the mosquito that transmits the dengue virus, to proliferate. The stage is now set in the United States for a dengue epidemic
(30)  because of the inadvertent introduction and wide dissemination of another mosquito, Aedes albopictus.
"        "12.  The passage suggests that a lack of modern sanitation would make which of the following most likely to occur?
(A)  An outbreak of Lyme disease
(B)  An outbreak of dengue hemorrhagic fever
(C)  An epidemic of typhoid
(D)  An epidemic of paralytic polio among infants
(E)  An epidemic of paralytic polio among adolescents and adults
"        "13.  According to the passage, the outbreak of dengue hemorrhagic fever in the 1950s occurred for which of the following reason s?
(A) The mosquito Aedes aegypti was newly introduced into Asia.
(B)  The mosquito Aedes aegypti became more numerous.
(C)  The mosquito Aedes albopictus became infected with the dengue virus.
(D)  Individuals who would normally acquire immunity to the dengue virus as infants were not infected until later in life.
(E)  More people began to visit and inhabit are as in which mosquitoes live and breed.
"        "14.  It can be inferred from the passage that Lyme disease has become prevalent in parts of the United States because of which of the following?
(A)  The inadvertent introduction of Lyme disease bacteria to the United States
(B)  The inability of modern sanitation methods to eradicate Lyme disease bacteria
(C) A genetic mutation in Lyme disease bacteria that makes them more virulent
(D)  The spread of Lyme disease bacteria from infected humans to noninfected humans
(E)  An increase in the number of humans who encounter deer ticks
"        "15Which of the following can most reasonably be concluded about the mosquito Aedes albopictus on the basis of information given in the passage?
(A) It is native to the United States.
(B) It can proliferate only in Asia.
(C) It transmits the dengue virus.
(D)  It caused an epidemic of dengue hemorrhagic fever in the 1950s.
(E )It replaced Aedes aegyptiin Asia when ecological changes altered Aedes aegypti's habitat.
"        "16Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
(A)  A paradox is stated, discussed, and left unresolved.
(B ) Two opposing explanations are presented, argued, and reconciled.
(C)  A theory is proposed and is then followed by descriptions of three experiments that support the theory.
(D)  A generalization is stated and is then followed by three instances that support the generalization.
(E)  An argument is described and is then followed by three counterexamples that refute the argument.
"        "17 Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author's assertion about the cause of the Lyme disease outbreak in the United States?
(A)  The deer population was smaller in the late nineteenth century than in the mid twentieth century.
(B)  Interest in outdoor recreation began to grow in the late nineteenth century.
(C)  In recent years the suburbs have stopped growing.
(D) Outdoor recreation enthusiasts routinely take measures to protect themselves against Lyme disease.
(E) Scientists have not yet developed a vaccine that can prevent Lyme disease.
"                                                                                               
        "4.In 1994, a team of scientists led by David McKay began studying the meteorite ALH84001 , which had been discovered in Antarctica in 1984. Two years later, the McKay team announced that ALH8400l,
(5)  which scientists generally agree originated on Mars, contained compelling evidence that life once existed on Mars. This evidence includes the discovery of organic molecules in ALH84001 , the first ever found in Martian rock. Organic
(10)  molecules-complex, carbon-based compounds-form the basis for terrestrial life. The organic molecules found in ALH84001 are polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, or PAHs. When microbes die, their organic material often decays into PAHs.
(15)  Skepticism about the McKay team's claim remains, however. For example, ALH84001 has been on Earth for 13,000years, suggesting to some scientists that its PAHs might have resulted from terrestrial contamination. However, McKay's
(20)  team has demonstrated that the concentration of PAHs increases as one looks deeper into ALH8400l, contrary to what one would expect from terrestrial contamination. The skeptics' strongest argument, however, is that processes unrelated to
(25)  organic life can easily produce all the evidence found by McKay's team, including PAHs. For example, star formation produces PAHs. Moreover, PAHs frequently appear in other meteorites, and no one attributes their presence to life processes. Yet
(30)  McKay's team notes that the particular combination ofPAHsinALH84001 is more similar to the combinations produced by decaying organisms than to those originating from nonbiological processes.
"        "18.  The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A)  describe new ways of studying the possibility that life once existed on Mars
(B)  revise a theory regarding the existence of life on Mars in light of new evidence
(C)  reconcile conflicting viewpoints regarding the possibility that life once existed on Mars
(D)  evaluate a recently proposed argument concerning the origin of ALH84001
(E)  describe a controversy concerning the significance of evidence from ALH84001
"        "19.  The passage asserts which of the following about the claim that ALH84001 originated on Mars?
(A)  It was initially proposed by the McKay team of scientists.
(B)  It is not a matter of widespread scientific dispute.
(C)  It has been questioned by some skeptics of the McKay team's work.
(D)  It has been undermined by recent work on PAHs.
(E)  It is incompatible with the fact that ALH84001 has been on Earth for 13,000 years.
"        "20.  The passage suggests that the fact that ALH84001 hasbeenonEarthfor13,000 years has been used by some scientists to support which of the following claims aboutALH84001?
(A)  ALH84001 may not have originated on Mars.
(B)  ALH84001containsPAHsthatarethe result of nonbiological processes.
(C)  ALH84001 may not have contained PAHs when it landed on Earth.
(D)  The organic molecules found inALH84001 are not PAHs.
(E)  The organic molecules found inALH84001 could not be the result of terrestrial contamination.
"        "21 The passage suggests that if a meteorite contained PAHs that were the result of terrestrial contamination, then one would expect which of the following to be true?
A)  The meteorite would have been on Earth for more than 13,000 years.
B)  The meteorite would have originated from a source other than Mars.
C)  The PAHs contained in the meteorite would have originated from nonbiological processes.
D)  The meteorite would contain fewer PAHs than most other meteorites contain.
E)  The PAHs contained in the meteorite would be concentrated toward the meteorite's surface.
"        "22  Which of the following best describes the function of the last sentence of the first paragraph?
A)  It identifies a possible organic source for the PAHs found in ALH8400l.
B)  It describes a feature of PAHs that is not shared by othertypes of organic molecules.
C)   It explains how a characteristic common to most meteorites originates.
D)  It suggests how the terrestrial contamination of ALH84001 might have taken place.
E)   It presents evidence that undermines the claim that life once existed on Mars.
"        "23  The passage suggests that McKay's team would agree with which of the following regarding the PAHs produced by nonorganic processes?
A)  These PAHs are not likely to be found in any meteorite that has been on Earth for 13,000 years or more.
B)  These PAHs are not likely to be found in any meteorite that originated from Mars.
C)  These PAH s are not likely to be produced by star formation.
D)  These PAHs are likely to be found in combinations that distinguish them from the PAHs produced by organic processes.
E)  These PAHs are likely to be found in fewer meteorites than the PAH s produced by organic processes.
"                                                                                               
        "5.Homeostasis, an animal's maintenance of certain internal variables within an acceptable range, particularly in extreme physical environments, has long interested biologists. The desert rat and the (5) camel in the most water-deprived environments, and marine vertebrates in an all-water environment, encounter the same regulatory problem: maintaining adequate internal fluid balance. For desert rats and camels, the problem is (10) conservation of water in an environment where standing water is nonexistent, temperature is high, and humidity is low. Despite these handicaps, desert rats are able to maintain the osmotic pressure of their blood, as well as their total body- (1 5) water content, at approximately the same levels as other rats. One countermeasure is behavioral: these rats stay in burrows during the hot part of the day, thus avoiding loss of fluid through panting or sweating, which are regulatory mechanisms for (20) maintaining internal body temperature by evaporative cooling. Also, desert rats' kidneys can excrete a urine having twice as high a salt content as seawater. Camels, on the other hand, rely more on simple (25) endurance. They cannot store water, and their reliance on an entirely unexceptional kidney results in a rate of water loss through renal function significantly higher than that of desert rats. As a result, camels must tolerate losses in body water of (30) up to 30 percent of their bodyweight. Nevertheless, camels do rely on a special Mechanism to keep water loss within a tolerable range: by sweating and panting only when their body temperature exceeds that which would kill a (35) human , they conserve internal water. Marine vertebrates experience difficulty with their water balance because though there is no shortage of seawater to drink, they must drink a lot of it to maintain their internal fluid balance. But the (40) excess salts from the seawater must be discharged somehow, and the kidneys of most marine vertebrates are unable to excrete a urine in which the salts are more concentrated than in seawater. Most of these animals have special salt-secreting (45) organs outside the kidney that enable them to eliminate excess salt.
"        "24.  Which of the following most accurately states the purpose of the passage?
(A)  To compare two different approaches to the study of homeostasis
(B)  To summarize the findings of several studies regarding organisms' maintenance of internal variables in extreme environments
(C)  To argue for a particular hypothesis regarding various organisms' conservation of water in desert environments
(D)  To cite examples of how homeostasis is achieved by various organisms
(E)  To defend a new theory regarding the maintenance of adequate fluid balance
"        "25.  It can be inferred from the passage that some mechanisms that regulate internal body temperature, like sweating and panting, can lead to which of the following?
(A)  A rise in the external body temperature
(B)  A drop in the body's internal fluid level
(C)  A decrease in the osmotic pressure of the blood
(D)  A decrease in the amount of renal water loss
(E)  A decrease in the urine's salt content

"        "26.  It can be inferred from the passage that the author characterizes the camel's kidney as ""entirely unexceptional"" (line26) primarily to emphasize that it
(A)  functions much as the kidney of a rat functions
(B)  does not aid the camel in coping with the exceptional water loss resulting from the extreme conditions of its environment
(C)  does not enable the camel to excrete as much salt as do the kidneys of marine vertebrates
(D)  is similar in structure to the kidneys of most mammals living in water-deprived environments
(E)  requires the help of other organs in eliminating excess salt
"                                                                                                                       
        "6.The new school of political history that emerged in the 1960sand 1970s sought to go beyond the traditional focus of political historians on leaders and government institutions by examining directly  (5)  the political practices of ordinary citizens. Like the old approach, however, this new approach excluded women. The very techniques these historians used to uncover mass political behavior in the nineteenth century United States-quantitative analyses of  (10)  election returns, for example-were useless in analyzing the political activities of women, who were denied the vote until 1920.  By redefining ""political activity,"" historian Paula Baker has developed a political history that includes  (15)  women. She concludes that among ordinary citizens, political activism by women in the nineteenth century prefigured trends in twentieth century politics. Defining ""politics"" as ""any action taken to affect the course of behavior of  (20)  government or of the community,"" Baker concludes that, while voting and holding office were restricted to men, women in the nineteenth century organized themselves into societies committed to social issues such as temperance and poverty. In other  (25)  words, Baker contends, women activists were early practitioners of nonpartisan, issue-oriented politics and thus were more interested in enlisting law makers, regardless of their party affiliation, on behalf of certain issues than in ensuring that one  (30)  party or another won an election. In the twentieth century, more men drew closer to women's ideas about politics and took up modes of issue-oriented politics that Baker sees women as having pioneered.   

"        "27.  The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A)  enumerate reasons why both traditional scholarly methods and newer scholarly methods have limitations
(B)  identify a shortcoming in a scholarly approach and describe an alternative approach
(C)  provide empirical data to support a long-held scholarly assumption
(D)  compare two scholarly publications on the basis of their authors' backgrounds
(E)  attempt to provide a partial answer to a long-standing scholarly dilemma
"        "28.  The passage suggests which of the following concerning the techniques used by the new political historians described in the first paragraph of the passage?
(A)  They involved the extensive use of the biographies of political party leaders and political theoreticians.
(B)  They were conceived by political historians who were reacting against the political climates of the 1960s and 1970s.
(C)  They were of more use in analyzing the positions of United States political parties in the nineteenth century than in analyzing the positions of those in the twentieth century.
(D)  They were of more use in analyzing the political behavior of nineteenth-century voters than in analyzing the political activities of those who could not vote during that period.
(E)  They were devised as a means of tracing the influence of nineteenth-century political trends on twentieth-century political trends.
"        "29.  It can be inferred that the author of the passage quotes Baker directly in the second paragraph primarily in order to
(A)  clarify a position before providing an alternative to that position
(B)  differentiate between a novel definition and traditional definitions
(C)  provide an example of a point agreed on by different generations of scholars
(D)  provide an example of the prose style of an
important historian (El amplify a definition given in the first paragraph
"        "30.  According to the passage, Paula Baker and the new politicalhistoriansofthe1960sand 1970s shared which of the following?
(A)  A commitment to interest group politics
(B)  A disregard for political theory and ideology
(C) An interest in the ways in which nineteenth¬ century politics prefigured contemporary politics
(D)  A reliance on such quantitative techniques as the analysis of election returns
(E)  An emphasis on the political involvement of ordinary citizens
"        "31.  Which of the following best describes the structure of the first paragraph of the passage?
(A)  Two scholarly approaches are compared, and a shortcoming common to both is identified.
(B)  Two rival schools of thought are contrasted, and a third is alluded to.
(C)  An outmoded scholarly approach is described, and a corrective approach is called for.
(D)  An argument is outlined, and counterarguments are mentioned.
(E)  A historical era is described in terms of its political trends.
"        "32.  The information in the passage suggests that a pre¬1960spoliticalhistorianwould have been most likely to undertake which of the following studies?
(A)  An analysis of voting trends among women voters of the 1920s
(B)  A study of male voters' gradual ideological shift from party politics to issue-oriented politics
(C)  A biography of an influential nineteenth-century minister of foreign affairs
(D)  An analysis of narratives written by previously unrecognized women activists
(E)  A study of voting trends among naturalized immigrant laborers in a nineteenth-century logging camp
"                                                                                               
        "7.At the end of the nineteenth century, a rising interest in Native American customs and an increasing desire to understand Native American culture prompted ethnologists to begin recording
(5)  the life stories of Native Americans. Ethnologists had a distinct reason for wanting to hear the stories: they were after linguistic or anthropological data that would supplement their own field observations, and they believed that the personal
(10)  stories, even of a single individual, could increase their understanding of the cultures that they had been observing from without. In addition many ethnologists at the turn of the century believed that Native American manners and customs were rapidly
(15)  disappearing, and that it was important to preserve for posterity as much information as could be adequately recorded before the cultures disappeared forever. There were, however, arguments against this
(20)  method as a way of acquiring accurate and complete information. Franz Boas, for example, described autobiographies as being ""of limited value, and useful chiefly for the study of the perversion of truth by memory,"" while Paul Rad in
(25)  contended that investigators rarely spent enough time with the tribes they were observing, and inevitably derived results too tinged by the investigator's own emotional tone to be reliable. Even more importantly, as these life stories
(30)  moved from the traditional oral mode to recorded written form, much was inevitably lost. Editors often decided what elements were significant to the field research on a given tribe. Native Americans recognized that the essence of their lives could not
(35) be communicated in English and that events that they thought significant were often deemed unimportant by their interviewers. Indeed, the very act of telling their stories could force Native American narrators to distort their cultures, as
(40)  taboos had to be broken to speak the names of dead relatives crucial to their family stories. Despite all of this, autobiography remains a useful tool for ethnological research: such personal reminiscences and impressions, incomplete as they
(45)  may be, are likely to throw more light on the working of the mind and emotions than any amount of speculation from an ethnologist or ethnological theorist from another culture.

"        "33.  Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
(A) The historical backgrounds of two currently used research methods are chronicled.
(B)  The validity of the data collected by using two different research methods is compared.
(C)  The usefulness of a research method is questioned and then a new method is proposed.
(D)  The use of a research method is described and the limitations of the results obtained are discussed.
(E)  Are search method is evaluated and the changes necessary for its adaptation to other subject areas are discussed.
"        "34.  Which of the following is most similar to the actions of nineteenth-century ethnologists in their editing of the life stories of Native Americans?
(A)  A witness in a jury trial invokes the Fifth Amendment in order to avoid relating personally incriminating evidence.
(B)  A stockbroker refuses to divulge the source of her information on the possible future increase in a stock's value.
(C)  A sports announcer describes the action in a team sport with which he is unfamiliar.
(D)  A chef purposely excludes the special ingredient from the recipe of his prizewinning dessert.
(E)  A politician fails to mention in a campaign speech the similarities in the positions held by her opponent for political office and by herself.
"        "35.  According to the passage, collecting life stories can be a useful methodology because
(A)  life stories provide deeper insights into a culture than the hypothesizing of academics who are not members of that culture
(B)  life stories can be collected easily and they are not subject to invalid interpretations
(C) ethnologists have a limited number of research methods from which to choose
(D)  life stories make it easy to distinguish between the important and unimportant features of a culture
(E)  the collection of life stories does not require a culturally knowledgeable investigator
"        "36.  Information in the passage suggests that which of the following may be a possible way to eliminate bias in the editing of life stories?
(A) Basing all inferences made about the culture on an ethnological theory
(B)  Eliminating all of the emotion laden information reported by the informant
(C)  Translating the informant' swords into the researcher's language
(D)  Reducing the number of questions and carefully specifying the content of the questions that the investigator can ask the informant
(E)  Reporting all of the information that the informant provides regardless of the investigator's personal opinion about its intrinsic value
"        "37.  The primary purpose of the passage as a whole is to
(A)  question an explanation
(B)  correct a misconception
(C)  critique a methodology
(D)  discredit an idea
(E)  clarify an ambiguity
"        "38.  It can be inferred from the passage that a characteristic of the ethnological research on Native Americans conducted during the nineteenth century was the use of which of the following?
(A) Investigators familiar with the culture under study
(B) A language other than the informant's for recording life stories
(C)  Life stories as the ethnologist's primary source of information
(D)  Complete transcriptions of informants' descriptions of tribal beliefs
(E)  Stringent guidelines for the preservation of cultural data
"                                                                                               
        "8.Seeking a competitive advantage, some professional service firms (for example, firms providing advertising, accounting, or health care services) have considered offering unconditional
(5)  guarantees of satisfaction. Such guarantees specify what clients can expect and what the firm will do if it fails to fulfill these expectations. Particularly with first-time clients, an unconditional guarantee can be an effective marketing tool if the client is very
(10)  cautious, the firm's fees are high, the negative consequences of bad service are grave, or business is difficult to obtain through referrals and word-of-mouth.
However, an unconditional guarantee can
(15)  sometimes hinder marketing efforts.  With its implication that failure is possible, the guarantee may, paradoxically, cause clients to doubt the service firm's ability to deliver the promised level of service. It may conflict with a firm's desire to
(20)  appear sophisticated, or may even suggest that a firm is begging for business. In legal and healthcare services, it may mislead clients by suggesting that lawsuits or medical procedures will have guaranteed outcomes. Indeed, professional service
(25)  firms without standing reputations and performance to match have little to gain from offering unconditional guarantees. And any firm that implements an unconditional guarantee without undertaking a commensurate commitment to
(30)  quality of service is merely employing a potentially costly marketing gimmick.
"        "39.  The primary function of the passage as a whole is to
(A)  account for the popularity of a practice
(B)  evaluate the utility of a practice
(C)  demonstrate how to institute a practice
(D)  weigh the ethics of using a strategy
(E)  explain the reasons for pursuing a strategy
"        "40.  All of the following are mentioned in the passage as circumstances in which professional service firms can benefit from offering an unconditional guarantee EXCEPT:
(A)  The firm is having difficulty retaining its clients of long standing.
(B)  The firm is having difficulty getting business through client recommendations.
(C)  The firm charges substantial fees for its services.
(D)  The adverse effects of poor performance by the firm are significant for the client.
(E)  The client is reluctant to incur risk.
"        "41.  Which of the following is-cited in the passage as a goal of some professional service firms in offering unconditional guarantees of satisfaction?
(A)  A limit on the firm's liability
(B)  Successful competition against other firms
(C)  Ability to justify fee increases
(D)  Attainment of an outstanding reputation in a field
(E)  Improvement in the quality of the firm's service
"        "42.  The passage's description of the issue raised by unconditional guarantees for health care or legal services most clearly implies that which of the following is true?
(A)  The legal and medical professions have standards of practice that would be violated by attempts to fulfill such unconditional guarantees.
(B)  The result of a lawsuit or medical procedure cannot necessarily be determined in advance by the professionals handling a client's case.
(C)  The dignity of the legal and medical professions is undermined by any attempts at marketing of professional services, including unconditional guarantees.
(D)  Clients whose lawsuits or medical procedures have unsatisfactory outcomes cannot be adequately compensated by financial settlements alone.
(E)  Predicting the monetary cost of legal or health care services is more difficult than predicting the monetary cost of other types of professional services.
"        "43.  Which of the following hypothetical situations best exemplifies the potential problem noted in the second sentence of the second paragraph (lines 15-19)?
(A)  A physician's unconditional guarantee of satisfaction encourages patients to sue for malpractice if they are unhappy with the treatment they receive.
(B)  A lawyer's unconditional guarantee of satisfaction makes clients suspect that the lawyer needs to find new clients quickly to increase the firm's income.
(C)  A business consultant's unconditional guarantee of satisfaction is undermined when the consultant fails to provide all of the services that are promised.
(D)  An architect's unconditional guarantee of satisfaction makes clients wonder how often the architect's buildings fail to please clients.
(E)  An accountant's unconditional guarantee of satisfaction leads clients to believe that tax returns prepared by the accountant ar ecertain to be accurate.
"        "44.  The passage most clearly implies which of the following about the professional service firms mentioned in lines 24-27?
(A)  They are unlikely to have offered unconditional guarantees of satisfaction in the past.
(B)  They are usually profitable enough to be able to compensate clients according to the terms of an unconditional guarantee.
(C)  They usually practice in fields in which the outcomes are predictable.
(D)  Their fees are usually more affordable than those charged by other professional service firms.
(E)  Their clients are usually already satisfied with the quality of service that is delivered.
"                                                                                               
        9.In a 1918 editorial, W. E. B. Du Bois advised African Americans to stop agitating for equality and to proclaim their solidarity with White Americans for   the duration of the First World War. The editorial (5) surprised many African Americans who viewed Du Bois as an uncompromising African American  leader and a chief opponent of the accommodationist  tactics urged by Booker T. Washington. In fact, however, Du Bois often shifted positions along the  (10) continuum between Washington and confrontationists such as William Trotter. In 1895, when Washington called on African Americans to concentrate on improving their communities instead  of opposing discrimination and agitating for political (15) rights, Du Bois praised Washington's speech. In  1903, however, Du Bois aligned himself with Trotter,  Washington's militant opponent, less for ideological reasons than because Trotter had described to him  Washington's efforts to silence those in the African  (20) American press who opposed Washington's  positions.  Du Bois's wartime position thus reflected not a change in his long-term goals but rather a pragmatic response in the face of social pressures:  (25) government officials had threatened African American journalists with censorship if they continued to voice grievances. Furthermore, Du Bois believed that African Americans'  contributions to past war efforts had brought them  (30) some legal and political advances.  accommodationism did not last, however. Upon  learning of systematic discrimination experienced  by African Americans in the military, he called on  them to "return fighting" from the war.          "45. The passage is primarily concerned with
(A) identifying historical circumstances that led
Du Bois to alter his long-term goals
(B) defining ""accommodationism"" and showing how
Du Bois used this strategy to achieve certain goals
(C) accounting for a particular position adopted by
Du Bois during the First World War
(D) contesting the view that Du Bois was significantly
influenced by either Washington or Trotter
(E) assessing the effectiveness of a strategy that
Du Bois urged African Americans to adopt
"        "46. The passage indicates which of the following about
Du Bois's attitude toward Washington?
(A) It underwent a shift during the First World War as
Du Bois became more sympathetic with Trotter's
views.
(B) It underwent a shift in 1903 for reasons other
than Du Bois's disagreement with Washington's
accommodationist views.
(C) It underwent a shift as Du Bois made a long-term
commitment to the strategy of accommodation.
(D) It remained consistently positive even though
Du Bois's Du Bois disagreed with Washington's efforts to
control the African American press.
(E) It was shaped primarily by Du Bois's appreciation
of Washington's pragmatic approach to the
advancement of the interests of African
Americans
"        "Americans

47. The passage suggests which of the following about
the contributions of African Americans to the United
States war effort during the First World War?
(A) The contributions were made largely in response
to Du Bois's 1918 editorial.
(B) The contributions had much the same effect as
African Americans' contributions to previous
wars.
(C) The contributions did not end discrimination
against African Americans in the military.
(D) The contributions were made in protest against
Trotter's confrontationist tactics.
(E) The contributions were made primarily by civil
rights activists who returned to activism after
the war.
"        "48. The author of the passage refers to Washington's call
to African Americans in 1895 primarily in order to
(A) identify Du Bois's characteristic position on the
continuum between accommodationism and
confrontationism
(B) explain why Du Bois was sympathetic with
Washington's views in 1895
(C) clarify how Trotter's views differed from those of
Washington in 1895
(D) support an assertion about Du Bois's tendency
to shift his political positions
(E) dismiss the claim that Du Bois's position in his
1918 editorial was consistent with his previous
views
"        "49. According to the passage, which of the following is
true of the strategy that Du Bois's 1918 editorial urged
African Americans to adopt during the First World War?
(A) It was a strategy that Du Bois had consistently
rejected in the past.
(B) It represented a compromise between Du Boi s's
own views and those of Trotter.
(C) It represented a significant redefinition of the
long-term goals Du Bois held prior to thewar.
(D) It was advocated by Du Bois in response to his
recognition of the discrimination faced by
African Americans during the war.
(E) It was advocated by Du Bois in part because of
his historical knowledge of gains African
Americans had made during pastwars.
"                                                                                                       
        "10. The fact that superior service can generate a competitive advantage for a company does not mean that every attempt at improving service will create such an advantage. Investments in service,
(5)  like those in production and distribution, must be balanced against other types of investments on the basis of direct, tangible benefits such as cost reduction and increased revenues. If a company is already effectively on a par with its competitors
(10)  because it provides service that avoids a damaging reputation and keeps customers from leaving at an unacceptable rate, then investment in higher service levels may be wasted, since service is a deciding factor for customers only in extreme situation.
This truth was not apparent to managers of one regional bank, which failed to improve its competitive position despite its investment in reducing the time a customer had to wait for a
(20)  teller. The bank managers did not recognize the level of customer inertia in the consumer banking industry that arises from the inconvenience of switching banks. Nor did they analyze their service improvement to determine whether it would attract
(25)  new customers by producing a new standard of service that would excite customers or by proving difficult for competitors to copy. The only merit of the improvement was that it could easily be described to customers.
"        "50.  The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A)  contrast possible outcomes of a type of business investment
(B)  suggest more careful evaluation of a type of business investment
(C)  illustrate various ways in which a type of business investment could fail to enhance revenues
(D)  trace the general problems of a company to a certain type of business investment
(E)  criticize the way in which managers tend to analyze the costs and benefits of business investments
"        "51.  According to the passage, investments in service are comparable to investments in production and distribution in terms of the
(A)  tangibility of the benefits that they tend to confer
(B)  increased revenues that they ultimately produce
(C)  basis on which they need to be weighed
(D)  insufficient analysis that managers devote to them
(E)  degree of competitive advantage that they are likely to provide
"        "52.  The passage suggests which of the following about service provided by the regional bank prior to its investment in enhancing that service?
(Al  It enabled the bank to retain customers at an acceptable rate.
(B)  It threatened to weaken the bank's competitive position with respect to other regional banks.
(C)  It had already been improved after having caused damage to the bank's reputation in the past.
(D)  It was slightly superior to that of the bank's regional competitors.
(E) It needed to be improved to attain parity with the service provided by competing banks.
"        "53. The passage suggests that bank managers failed to
consider whether or not the service improvement
mentioned in lines 18-2 0
(A) was too complicated to be easily described to
prospective customers
(B) made a measurable change in the experiences
of customers in the bank's offices
(C) could be sustained if the number of customers
increased significantly
(D) was an innovation that competing banks could
have imitated
(E) was adequate to bring the bank's general level
of service to a level that was comparable with
that of its competitors
"        "54. The discussion of the regional bank in the second
paragraph serves which of the following functions
within the passage as a whole?
(A) It describes an exceptional case in which
investment in service actually failed to produce
a competitive advantage.
(B) It illustrates the pitfalls of choosing to invest in service at a time when investment is needed more urgently in another area.
(C) It demonstrates the kind of analysis that managers apply when they choose one kind of service investment over another.
(D) It supports the argument that investments in certain aspects of service are more advantageous than investments in other aspects of service.
(E) It provides an example of the point aboutinvestment in service made in the firstparagraph.
"        "55. The author uses the word ""only"" in line 27 most likely
in order to
(A) highlight the oddity of the service improvement
(B) emphasize the relatively low value of the
investment in service improvement
(C) distinguish the primary attribute of the service
improvement from secondary attributes
(D) single out a certain merit of the service
improvement from other merits
(E) point out the limited duration of the actual
service improvement
"                                                                                               
        11.In an attempt to improve the overall performance of clerical workers, many companies have introduced computerized performance monitoring and control systems (CPMCS) that record and report a worker's (5) computer-driven activities. However, at least one study has shown that such monitoring may not be having the desired effect. In the study, researchers asked monitored clerical workers and their supervisors how assessments of productivity (10) affected supervisors' ratings of workers' performance. In contrastto unmonitored workers doing the same work, who without exception identified the most important element in their jobs as customer service, the monitored workers and (15) their supervisors all responded that productivity was the critical factor in assigning ratings. This finding suggested that there should have been a strong correlation between a monitored worker's productivity and the overall rating the worker (20) received. However, measures of the relationship between overall rating and individual elements of performance clearly supported the conclusion that supervisors gave considerable weight to criteria such as attendance, accuracy, and indications of (25) customer satisfaction. It is possible that productivity may be a "hygiene factor"; that is, if it is too low, it will hurt the overall rating. But the evidence suggests that beyond the point at which productivity becomes (30) "good enough," higher productivity per se is unlikely to improve a rating .          "56. According to the passage, before the final results of
the study were known, which of the following seemed
likely?
(A) That workers with the highest productivity would
also be the most accurate
(B) That workers who initially achieved high
productivity ratings would continue to do so
consistently
(C) That the highest performance ratings would be
achieved by workers with the highest
productivity
(D) That the most productive workers would be
those whose supervisors claimed to value
productivity
(E) That supervisors who claimed to value
productivity would place equal value on
customer satisfaction
"        "57. It can be inferred that the author of the passage
discusses ""unmonitored workers"" (line 11) primarily in
order to
(A) compare the ratings of these workers with the
ratings of monitored workers
(B) provide an example of a case in which
Monitoring might be effective
(C) provide evidence of an inappropriate use of
CPMCS
(D) emphasize the effect that CPMCS may have on
workers' perceptions of their jobs
(E) illustrate the effect that CPMCS may have on
workers' ratings
"        "58. Which of the following, if true, would most clearly have
supported the conclusion referred to in lines 22-25?
(A) Ratings of productivity correlated highly with
ratings of both accuracy and attendance.
(B) Electronic monitoring greatly increased
productivity.
(C) Most supervisors based overall ratings of
performance on measures of productivity alone .
(D) Overall ratings of performance correlated more
highly with measures of productivity than the
researchers expected.
(E) Overall ratings of performance correlated more
highly with measures of accuracy than with
measures of productivity.
"        "59. According to the passage, a ""hygiene factor"" (line 27)
is an aspect of a worker's performance that
(A) has no effect on the rating of a worker's
performance
(B) is so basic to performance that it is assumed to
be adequate for all workers
(C) is given less importance than it deserves in
rating a worker's performance
(D) is not likely to affect a worker's rating unless it is
judged to be inadequate
(E) is important primarily because of the effect it
has on a worker's rating
"        "60. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) explain the need for the introduction of an
innovative strategy
(B) discuss a studyof the use of a particular
method
(C) recommend a course of action
(D) resolve a difference of opinion
(E) suggest an alternative approach
"                                                                                                       
        12.Neotropical coastal mangrove forests are usually "zonal," with certain mangrove species found predominantly in the seaward portion of the habitat and other mangrove species on the more landward (5) portions of the coast. The earliest research on mangrove forests produced descriptions of species distribution from shore to land , without exploring the causes of the distributions. The idea that zonation is caused by plant (10) succession was first expressed by J. H. Davis in a study of Florida mangrove forests. According to Davis' scheme, the shoreline is being extended in a seaward direction because of the "land-building" role of mangroves, which, by trapping sediments over (15) time, extend the shore. As a habitat gradually becomes more in land as the shore extends, the "land-building" species are replaced. This continuous process of accretion and succession would be interrupted only by hurricanes or storm flushings. (20) Recently the universal application of Davis' succession paradigm has been challenged. It appears that in areas where weak currents and weak tidal energies allow the accumulation of sediments, mangroves will follow land formation (25) and accelerate the rate of soil accretion; succession will proceed according to Davis' scheme. But on stable coastlines, the distribution of mangrove species results in other patterns of zonation; "land building" does not occur. (30) To find a principle that explains the various distribution patterns, several researchers have looked to salinity and its effects on mangroves. While mangroves can develop in fresh water, they can also thrive in salinities as high as 2.5 times that (35) of seawater. However, those mangrove species found in freshwater habitats do well only in the absence of competition, thus suggesting that salinity tolerance is a critical factor in competitive success among mangrove species. Research (40) suggests that mangroves will normally dominate highly saline regions, although not because they require salt. Rather, they are metabolically efficient (and hence grow well) in portions of an environment whose high salinity excludes plants adapted to (45) lower salinities. Tides create different degrees of salinity along a coastline. The characteristic mangrove species of each zone should exhibit a higher metabolic efficiency at that salinity than will any potential invader, including other (50) species of mangrove.         "61. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) refute the idea that the zonation exhibited in
mangrove forests is caused by adaptation to
salinity
(B) describe the pattern of zonation typically found
in Florida mangrove forests
(C) argue that Davis' succession paradigm cannot be
successfully applied to Florida mangrove forests
(D) discuss hypotheses that attempt to explain the
zonation of coastal mangrove forests
(E) establish that plants that do well in saline forest
environments require salt to achieve maximum
metabolic efficiency

"        "62. According to the passage, the earliest research on
mangrove forests produced which of the following?
(A) Data that implied random patterns of mangrove
species distribution
(B) Descriptions of species distributions suggesting
zonation
(C) Descriptions of the development of mangrove
forests overtime
(D) Reclassification of species formerly thought to
be identical
(E) Data that confirmed the ""land-building"" role of
mangroves
"        "63. It can be inferred from the passage that Davis'
paradigm does NOT apply to which of the following?
(A) The shoreline of Florida mangrove forests first
studied by Davis
(B) A shoreline in an area with weak currents
(C) A shoreline in an area with weak tidal energy
(D) A shoreline extended by ""land-building"" species
of mangroves
(E) A shoreline in which few sediments can
accumulate
"                                                                                                                       
        13.Findings from several studies on corporate mergersand acquisitions during the 1970s and 1980s raisequestions aboutwhy firms initiate and consummatesuch transactions. One study showed, for example,(5) that acquiring firms were on average unable tomaintain acquired firms' pre-merger levels of profitability. A second study concluded that post acquisitiongains to most acquiring firms were notadequate to cover the premiums paid to obtain(10) acquired firms. A third demonstrated that, followingthe announcement of a prospective merger, thestock of the prospective acquiring firm tends toincrease in value much less than does that of the firm for which it bids. Yet mergers and acquisitions(15) remain common, and bidders continue to assertthat their objectives are economic ones.Acquisitions may well have the desirable effect ofchanneling a nation's resources efficiently from lessto more efficient sectors of its economy, but the(20) individual acquisitions executives arranging thesedeals must see them as advancing either their ownor their companies' private economic interests. Itseems that factors having little to do with corporateeconomic interests explain acquisitions. These(25) factors may include the incentive compensation ofexecutives, lack of monitoring by boards ofdirectors, and managerial error in estimating thevalue of firms targeted for acquisition. Alternatively,the acquisition acts of bidders may derive from(30) modeling: a manager does what other managers do.        "64. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) review research demonstrating the benefits of
corporate mergers and acquisitions and
examine some of the drawbacks that acquisition
behavior entails
(B) contrast the effects of corporate mergers and
acquisitions on acquiring firms and on firms that
are acquired
(C) report findings that raise questions about a
reason for corporate mergers and acquisitions
and suggest possible alternative reasons
(D) explain changes in attitude on the part of
acquiring firms toward corporate mergers and
acquisitions
(E) account for a recent decline in the rate of
corporate mergers and acquisitions
"        "
65. The findings cited in the passage suggest which of the
following about the outcomes of corporate mergers
and acquisitions with respect to acquiring firms?
(A) They include a decrease in value of many
acquiring firms' stocks.
(B) They tend to be more beneficial for small firms
than for large firms.
(C) They do not fulfill the professed goals of most
acquiring firms.
(D) They tend to be beneficial to such firms in the
long term even though apparently detrimental in
the short term.
(E) They discourage many such firms from
attempting to make subsequent bids and
acquisitions.
"        "66. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
would be most likely to agree with which of the
following statements about corporate acquisitions?
(A) Their known benefits to national economies
explain their appeal to individual firms during the
1970s and 1980s.
(B) Despite their adverse impact on some firms,
they are the best way to channel resources from
less to more productive sectors of a nation's
economy.
(C) They are as likely to occur because of poor
monitoring by boards of directors as to be
caused by incentive compensation for
managers.
(D) They will be less prevalent in the future , since
their actual effects will gain wider recognition.
(E) Factors other than economic benefit to the
acquiring firm help to explain the frequency with
which they occur.
"        "67. The author of the passage mentions the effect of
acquisitions on national economies most probably in
order to
(A) provide an explanation for the mergers and
acquisitions of the 1970s and 1980soverlooked
by the findings discussed in the passage
(B) suggest that national economic interests played
an important role in the mergers and
acquisitions of the 1970s and 1980s
(C) support a noneconomic explanation for the
mergers and acquisitions of the 1970s and
1980sthat was cited earlier in the passage
(D) cite and point out the inadequacy of one possible
explanation for the prevalence of mergers and
acquisitions during the 1970s and 1980s
(E) explain how modeling affected the decisions
made by managers involved in mergers and
acquisitions during the 1970s and 1980s
"        "68. According to the passage, during the 1970s and
1980sbidding firms differed from the firms for which
they bid in that bidding firms
(A) tended to be more profitable before a merger
than after a merger
(B) were more often concerned about the impact of
acquisitions on national economies
(C) were run by managers whose actions were
modeled on those of other managers
(D) anticipated greater economic advantages from
prospective mergers
(E) experienced less of an increase in stock value
when a prospective merger was announced
"        "69. According to the passage, which of the following was
true of corporate acquisitions that occurred during the
1970s and 1980s?
(A) Few of the acquisitions that firms made were
subsequently divested.
(8) Most such acquisitions produced only small
increases in acquired firms' levels of profitability.
(C) Most such acquisitions were based on an
overestimation of the value of target firms.
(D) The gains realized by most acquiring firms did
not equal the amounts expended in acquiring
target firms.
(E) About half of such acquisitions led to long-term
increases in the value of acquiring firms' stocks
"        "70. The author of the passage implies that which of the
following is a possible partial explanation for
acquisition behavior during the 1970s and 1980s?
(A) Managers wished to imitate other managers
primarily because they saw how financially
beneficial other firms' acquisitions were.
(B) Managers miscalculated the value of firms that
were to be acquired.
(C) Lack of consensus within boards of directors
resulted in their imposing conflicting goals on
managers.
(D) Total compensation packages for managers
increased during that period.
(E) The value of bidding firms' stock increased
significantly when prospective mergers were
announced.
"                                                                                       
        "14.Caffeine, the stimulant in coffee, has been called ""the most widely used psychoactive substance on Earth."" Snyder, Daly, and Bruns have recently proposed that caffeine affects behavior by (5) countering the activity in the human brain of a naturally occurring chemical called adenosine. Adenosine normally depresses neuron firing in many areas of the brain. It apparently does this by inhibiting the release of neurotransmitters, (10) chemicals that carry nerve impulses from one neuron to the next. Like many other agents that affect neuron firing, adenosine must first bind to specific receptors on neuronal membranes. There are at (15) least two classes of these receptors, which have been designated A1 and A2. Snyder et al. propose that caffeine, which is structurally similar to adenosine, is able to bind to both types of receptors, which prevents adenosine from attaching (20) there and allows the neurons to fire more readily than they otherwise would. For many years, caffeine's effects have been attributed to its inhibition of the production of phosphodiesterase, an enzyme that breaks down (25) the chemical called cyclic AMP. A number of neurotransmitters exert their effects by first increasing cyclic AMP concentrations in target neurons. Therefore, prolonged periods at the elevated concentrations, as might be brought about (30) by a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, could lead to a greater amount of neuron firing and, consequently, to behavioral stimulation. But Snyder et al. point out that the caffeine concentrations needed to inhibit the production of phosphodiesterase in the brain (35) are much higher than those that produce stimulation . Moreover, other compounds that block phosphordiesterase's activity are not stimulants. To buttress their case that caffeine acts instead by preventing adenosine binding, Snyder et (40) al. compared the stimulatory effects of a series of Caffeine derivatives with their ability to dislodge adenosine from its receptors in the brains of mice. ""In general,"" they reported, ""the ability of the compounds to compete at the receptors correlates (45) with their ability to stimulate locomotion in the mouse; i.e., the higher their capacity to bind at the receptors, the higher their ability to stimulate locomotion."" Theophylline, a close structural relative of caffeine and the major stimulant in tea, was one (50) of the most effective compounds in both regards. There were some apparent exceptions to the general correlation observed between adenosine receptor binding and stimulation . One of these was a compound called 3-isobutyl-l-methylxanthine (55) (IBMX), which bound very well but actually depressed mouse locomotion. Snyder et al. suggest that this is not a major stumbling block to their hypothesis. The problem is that the compound has mixed effects in the brain, a not unusual occurrence (60) with psychoactive drugs. Even caffeine, which is generally known only for its stimulatory effects, displays this property, depressing mouse locomotion at very low concentrations and stimulating it at higher ones.     

"        "71. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) discuss a plan for investigation of a phenomenon
that is not yet fully understood
(B) present two explanations of a phenomenon and
reconcile the differences between them
(C) summarize two theories and suggest a third
theory that overcomes the problems
encountered in the first two
(D) describe an alternative hypothesis and provide
evidence and arguments that support it
(E) challenge the validity of a theory by exposing the
inconsistencies and contradictions in it
"        "72. According to Snyder et aI., caffeine differs from
adenosine in that caffeine
(A) stimulates behavior in the mouse and in humans,
whereas adenosine stimulates behavior in
humans only
(B) has mixed effects in the brain, whereas
adenosine has onlya stimulatory effect
(C) increases cyclic AMP concentrations in target
neurons, whereas adenosine decreases such
concentrations
(D) permits release of neurotransmitters when it is
bound to adenosine receptors, whereas
adenosine inhibits such release
(E) inhibits both neuron firing and the production of
phosphodiesterase when there is a sufficient
concentration in the brain, whereas adenosine
inhibits only neuron firing
"        "73. In response to experimental results concerning IBMX,
Snyder et al. contended that it is not uncommon for
psychoactive drugs to have
(A) mixed effects in the brain
(B) inhibitory effects on enzymes in the brain
(C) close structural relationships with caffeine
(D) depressive effects on mouse locomotion
(E) the ability to dislodge caffeine from receptors in
the brain

"        "74. According to Snyder et aI., all of the following
compounds can bind to specific receptors in the brain
EXCEPT
(A) IBMX
(B) caffeine
(C) adenosine
(D) theophylline
(E) phosphodiesterase
"        "
75. Snyder et al. suggest that caffeine's ability to bind to
A1 and A2 receptors can be at least partially attributed
to which of the following?
(A) The chemical relationship between caffeine and
phosphodiesterase
(B) The structural relationship between caffeine and
adenosine
(C) The structural similarity between caffeine and
neurotransmitters
(D) The ability of caffeine to stimulate behavior
(E) The natural occurrence of caffeine and
adenosine in the brain
"        "
76. The author quotes Snyder et al. in lines 43-48 most
probably in order to
(A) reveal some of the assumptions underlying their
theory
(B) summarize a major finding of their experiments
(C) point out that their experiments were limited to
the mouse
(D) indicate that their experiments resulted only in
general correlations
(E) refute the objections made by supporters of the
older theory
"                                                                                               
        15.Historians of women's labor in the United States at first largely disregarded the story of female service workers-women earning wages in occupations such as salesclerk, domestic servant, and office  (5)  secretary. These historians focused instead on factory work, primarily because it seemed so different from traditional, unpaid "women's work" in the home, and because the underlying economic forces of industrialism were presumed to be  (10)  gender-blind and hence emancipatory in effect. Unfortunately, emancipation has been less profound than expected, for not even industrial wage labor has escaped continued sex segregation in the workplace.  (15)  To explain this unfinished revolution in the status of women, historians have recently begun to emphasize the way a prevailing definition of femininity often determines the kinds of work allocated to women, even when such allocation is  (20)  inappropriate to new conditions. For instance, early textile-mill entrepreneurs, in justifying women's employment in wage labor, made much of the assumption that women were by nature skillful at detailed tasks and patient in carrying out repetitive  (25)  chores; the mill owners thus imported into the new industrial order hoary stereotypes associated with the homemaking activities they presumed to have been the purview of women. Because women accepted the more unattractive new industrial tasks  (30)  more readily than did men, such jobs came to be regarded as female jobs. And employers, who assumed that women's "real" aspirations were for marriage and family life, declined to pay women wages commensurate with those of men. Thus  (35)  many lower-skilled, lower-paid, less secure jobs came to be perceived as "female."  More remarkable than the original has been the persistence of such sex segregation in twentieth -century industry. Once an occupation came to be  (40)  perceived as "female," employers showed surprisingly little interest in changing that perception, even when higher profits beckoned. And despite the urgent need of the United States during the Second World War to mobilize its human  (45)  resources fully, job segregation by sex characterized even the most important war industries. Moreover, once the war ended, employers quickly returned to men most of the "male" jobs that women had been permitted to  (50)  master.           "77.  According to the passage, job segregation by sex in the United States was
(A)  greatly diminished by labor mobilization during the Second World War
(B)  perpetuated by those textile-mill owners who argued in favor of women's employment in wage labor
(C)  one means by which women achieved greater job security
(D)  reluctantly challenged by employers except when the economic advantages were obvious
(E)  a constant source of labor unrest in the young textile industry
"        "78.  According to the passage, historians of women's labor focused on factory work as a more promising area of research than service-sector work because factory work
(A)  involved the payment of higher wages
(B)  required skill in detailed tasks
(C)  was assumed to be less characterized by sex segregation
(D)  was more readily accepted by women than by men
(E)  fit the economic dynamic of industrialism better
"        "79.  It can be inferred from the passage that early historians of women's labor in the United States paid little attention to women's employment in the service sector of the economy because
(A)  the extreme variety of these occupations made it very difficult to assemble meaningful statistics about them
(B)  fewer women found employment in the service sector than in factory work
(C)  the wages paid to workers in the service sector were much lower than those paid in the industrial sector
(D)  women's employment in the service sector tended to be much more short-term than in factory work
(E)  employment in the service sector seemed to have much in common with the unpaid work associated with homemaking
"        "80. The passage supports which of the following
statements about the early mill owners mentioned in
the second paragraph?
(A) They hoped that by creating relatively
unattractive ""female"" jobs they would discourage
women from losing interest in marriage and
family life.
(B) They sought to increase the size of the available
Labor force as a means to keep men's wages
low.
(C) They argued that women were inherently suited
to do well in particular kinds of factory work.
(D) They thought that factory work bettered the
condition of women by emancipating them from
dependence on income earned by men.
(E) They felt guilty about disturbing the traditional
division of labor in the family.

"        "81. It can be inferred from the passage that the ""unfinished
revolution"" the author mentions in line 15 refers to the
(Al entry of women into the industrial labor market
(B) recognition that work done by women as
homemakers should be compensated at rates
comparable to those prevailing in the service
sector of the economy
(C) development of a new definition of femininity
unrelated to the economic forces of
industrialism
(D) introduction of equal pay for equal work in all
professions
(E) emancipation of women wage earners from
gender-determined job allocation
"        "82. The passage supports which of the following
statements about hiring policies in the United States?
(Al After a crisis many formerly ""male"" jobs are
reclassified as ""female"" jobs.
(B) Industrial employers generally prefer to hire
women with previous experience as
homemakers.
(C) Post-Second World War hiring policies caused
women to lose many of their wartime gains in
employment opportunity.
(D) Even war industries during the Second World
War were reluctant to hire women for factory
work.
(E) The service sector of the economy has proved
more nearly gender-blind in its hiring policies
than has the manufacturing sector.
"        "83. Which of the following words best expresses the
opinion of the author of the passage concerning the
notion that women are more skillful than men in
carrying out detailed tasks?
(A) ""patient"" (line 24)
(B) ""repetitive"" (line 24)
(C) ""hoary"" (line 26)
(D) ""homemaking"" (line 27)
(E) ""purview"" (line 28)

"        "84. Which of the following best describes the relationship
of the final paragraph to the passage as a whole?
(A) The central idea is reinforced by the citation of
evidence drawn from twentieth-century history.
(B) The central idea is restated in such a way as to
form a transition to a new topic for discussion.
(C) The central idea is restated and juxtaposed with
evidence that might appear to contradict it.
(D) A partial exception to the generalizations of the
central idea is dismissed as unimportant.
(E) Recent history is cited to suggest that the
central idea's validity is gradually diminishing
"                                                                               
        16.Two modes of argumentation have been used on behalf of women's emancipation in Western societies. Arguments in what could be called the "relational" feminist tradition maintain the doctrine (5) of "equality in difference," or equity as distinct from equality. They posit that biological distinctions between the sexes result in a necessary sexual division of labor in the family and throughout society and that women's procreative labor is currently (10) undervalued by society, to the disadvantage of women. By contrast, the individualist feminist tradition emphasizes individual human rights and celebrates women's quest for personal autonomy, while downplaying the importance of gender roles (15) and minimizing discussion of childbearing and its attendant responsibilities . Before the late nineteenth century, these views coexisted within the feminist movement, often within the writings of the same individual. Between (20) 1890 and 1920, however, relational feminism, which had been the dominant strain in feminist thought, and which still predominates among European and non-Western feminists, lost ground in England and the United States. Because the concept of individual (25) rights was already well established in the Anglo Saxon legal and political tradition, individualist feminism came to predominate in English-speaking countries. At the same time, the goals of the two approaches began to seem increasingly (30) irreconcilable. Individualist feminists began to advocate a totally gender-blind system with equal rights for all. Relational feminists, while agreeing that equal educational and economic opportunities outside the home should be available for all women, (35) continued to emphasize women's special contributions to society as homemakers and mothers; they demanded special treatment for women, including protective legislation for women workers, state-sponsored maternity benefits, and (40) paid compensation for housework. Relational arguments have a major pitfall: because they underline women's physiological and psychological distinctiveness, they are often appropriated by political adversaries and used to (45) endorse male privilege. But the individualist approach, by attacking gender roles, denying the significance of physiological difference, and condemning existing familial institutions as hopelessly patriarchal, has often simply treated as (50) irrelevant the family roles important to many Line women. If the individualist framework, with its claim for women's autonomy, could be harmonized with the family-oriented concerns of relational feminists , a more fruitful model for contemporary feminist (55) politics could emerge.         "85. The author of the passage alludes to the well established
nature of the concept of individual rights in
the Anglo-Saxon legal and political tradition in order to
(A) illustrate the influence of individualist feminist
thought on more general intellectual trends in
English history
(B) argue that feminism was already a part of the
larger Anglo-Saxon intellectual tradition, even
though this has often gone unnoticed by critics
of women's emancipation
(C) explain the decline in individualist thinking among
feminists in non-English-speaking countries
(D) help account for an increasing shift toward
individualist feminism among feminists in
English-speaking countries
(E) account for the philosophical differences
between individualist and relational feminists in
English-speaking countries
"        "86. The passage suggests that the author of the passage
believes which of the following?
(A) The predominance of individualist feminism in
English-speaking countries is a historical phenomenon, the causes of which have not yet been investigated.
(B) The individualist and relational feminist views are irreconcilable, given their theoretical differences concerning the foundations of society.
(C) A consensus concerning the direction of future
feminist politics will probably soon emerge,
given the awareness among feminists of the need for cooperation among women .
(D) Political adversaries of feminism often misuse arguments predicated on differences between the sexes to argue that the existing social system should be maintained.
(E) Relational feminism provides the best theoretical framework for contemporary feminist politics, but individualist feminism could contribute much toward refining and strengthening modern feminist thought.

"        "87.  
It can be inferred from the passage that the
individualist feminist tradition denies the validity of which of the following causal statements?
(A) A division of labor in a social group can result in increased efficiency with regard to the performance of group tasks.
(B) A division of labor in a social group causes inequities in the distribution of opportunities and benefits among group members.
(C) A division of labor on the basis of gender in a social group is necessitated by the existence of sex-linked biological differences between male
and female members of the group.
(D) Culturally determined distinctions based on
gender in a social group foster the existence of
differing attitudes and opinions among group
members.
(E) Educational programs aimed at reducing
inequalities based on gender among members
of a social group can result in a sense of greater well-being for all members of the group.
"        "
88  According to the passage, relational feminists and individualist feminists agree that
(A) individual human rights take precedence over most other social claims
(B) the gender-based division of labor in society should be eliminated
(C) laws guaranteeing equal treatment for all
citizens regardless of gender should be passed
(D) a greater degree of social awareness
concerning the importance of motherhood
would be beneficial to society
(E) the same educational and economic opportunities should be available to both sexes
"        "89. According to the author, which of the following was true of feminist thought in Western societies before 1890?
(A) Individualist feminist arguments were not found in the thought or writing of non-English-speaking feminists.
(B) Individualist feminism was a strain in feminist thought, but another strain, relational feminism, predominated.
(C) Relational and individualist approaches were equally prevalent in feminist thought and writing.
(D) The predominant view among feminists held that
the welfare of women was ultimately less important than the welfare of children.
(E) The predominant view among feminists held that the sexes should receive equal treatment under the law.

"        "90. The author implies that which of the following was true of most feminist thinkers in England and the United States after 1920?
(A) They were less concerned with politics than with
intellectual issues.
(B) They began to reach a broader audience and their programs began to be adopted by main¬ stream political parties.
(C) They called repeatedly for international
cooperation among women's groups to achieve
(D) They moderated their initial criticism of the economic systems that characterized their societies .
(E) They did not attempt to unite the two different feminist approaches in their thought.
"                                                                                               
        17. In addition to conventional galaxies, the universe contains very dim galaxies that until recently went unnoticed by astronomers. Possibly as numerous as conventional galaxies, these galaxies have the same  (5) general shape and even the same approximate number of stars as a common type of conventional galaxy, the spiral , but tend to be much larger. Because these galaxies' mass is spread out over larger areas, they have far fewer stars per unit volume than do  (10) conventional galaxies. Apparently these low-surface-brightness galaxies, as they are called , take much longer than conventional galaxies to condense their primordial gas and convert it to stars-that is, they evolve much more slowly. These galaxies may constitute  (15) an answer to the long-standing puzzle of the missing baryonic mass in the universe. Baryons-subatomic particles that are generally protons or neutrons-are the source of stellar, and therefore galactic, luminosity, and so their numbers can be  (20) estimated based on how luminous galaxies are. However, the amount of helium in the universe, as measured by spectroscopy, suggests that there are far more baryons in the universe than estimates based on galactic luminosity indicate. Astronomers have long  (25) speculated that the missing baryonic mass might eventually be discovered in inter galactic space or as some large population of galaxies that are difficult to detect.         "91   According to the pas sage, conventional spiral galaxies differ from low-surface-brightness galaxies in which of the following ways?
A)  They have fewer stars than do low-surface -brightness galaxies.
B)  They evolve more quickly than low-surface- brightness galaxies
C)  They are more diffuse than low-surface¬ brightness galaxies
D)  They contain less helium than do low-surface-brightness galaxies.
E)  They are larger than low-surface-brightness galaxies.

"        "92. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is an accurate physical description of typical low-surface-brightness galaxies?
A)   They are large spiral galaxies containing fewer stars than do conventional galaxies.
B)   They are compact but very dim spiral galaxies.
C)   They are diffuse spiral galaxies that occupy a large volume of space.
D)  They are small , young spiral galaxies that contain a high proportion of primordial gas.
E)  They are large, dense spirals with low luminosity.
"        "93.   It can be inferred from the pass age that the ""long¬ standing puzzle"" refers to which of the following?
A)  The difference between the rate at which conventional galaxies evolve and the rate at which low-surface-brightness galaxies evolve
B)  The discrepancy between estimates of total baryonic mass derived from measuring helium and estimates based on measuring galactic luminosity
C)  The inconsistency between the observed amount of helium in the universe and the number of stars in typical low-surface-brightness galaxies
D)  Uncertainties regarding what proportion of baryonic mass is contained in intergalactic space and what proportion in conventional galaxies
E)  Difficulties involved in detecting very distant galaxies and in investigating their luminosity
"        "94. The author implies that low-surface-brightness
galaxies could constitute an answer to the puzzle
discussed in the second paragraph primarily because
(A) they contain baryonic mass that was not taken
into account by researchers using galactic
luminosity to estimate the number of baryons in
the universe
(B) they, like conventional galaxies that contain
many baryon s, have evolved from massive,
primordial gas clouds
(C) they may contain relatively more helium , and
hence more baryons, than do galaxies whose
helium content has been studied using
spectroscopy
(D) they have recently been discovered to contain
more baryonic mass than scientists had thought
when low-surface-brightness galaxies were first
observed
(E) they contain stars that are significantly more
luminous than would have been predicted on the
basis of initial studies of luminosity in low surface-
brightness galaxies
"        "95. The author mentions the fact that baryons are the
source of stars' luminosity primarily in order to explain
(A) how astronomers determine that some galaxies
contain fewer stars per unit volume than do
others
(B) how astronomers are able to calculate the total
luminosity of a galaxy
(C) why astronomers can use galactic luminosity to
estimate baryonic mass
(D) why astronomers' estimates of baryonic mass
based on galactic luminosity are more reliable
than those based on spectroscopic studies of
helium
(E) how astronomers know bright galaxies contain
more baryons than do dim galaxies
"        "96. The author of the passage would be most likely to
disagree with which of the following statements?
(A) Low-surface-brightness galaxies are more
difficult to detect than are conventional galaxies.
(B) Low-surface-brightness galaxies are often spiral
in shape.
(C) Astronomers have advanced plausible ideas
About where missing baryonic mass might be
found.
(D) Astronomers have devised a useful way of
estimating the total baryonic mass in the
universe.
(E) Astronomers have discovered a substantial
amount of baryonic mass in intergalactic space.
"        "97. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) describe a phenomenon and consider its
scientific significance
(B) contrast two phenomena and discuss a puzzling
difference between them
(C) identify a newly discovered phenomenon and
explain its origins
(D) compare two classes of objects and discuss the
physical properties of each
(E) discuss a discovery and point out its
inconsistency with existing theory
"                                                                                       
        18.While there is no blueprint for transforming a largely government-controlled economy into a free one, the experience of the United Kingdom since 1979 clearly shows one approach that works: (5) privatization, in which state-owned industries are sold to private companies. By 1979, the total borrowings and losses of state-owned industries were running at about £3 billion a year. By selling many of these industries, the government has (10) decreased these borrowings and losses, gained over £34 billion from the sales, and now receives tax revenues from the newly privatized companies. Along with a dramatically improved overall economy, the government has been able to repay (15) 12.5 percent of the net national debt over a two year period. In fact, privatization has not only rescued individual industries and a whole economy headed for disaster, but has also raised the level of (20) performance in every area. At British Airways and British Gas, for example, productivity per employee has risen by 20 percent. At Associated British Ports, labor disruptions common in the 1970s and early 1980shave now virtually disappeared. At (25) British Telecom, there is no longer a waiting list-as there always was before privatization-to have a telephone installed. Part of this improved productivity has come about because the employees of privatized (30) industries were given the opportunity to buy shares in their own companies. They responded enthusiastically to the offer of shares: at British Aerospace, 89 percent of the eligible work force bought shares; at Associated British Ports, 90 (35) percent; and at British Telecom, 92 percent. When people have a personal stake in something, they think about it, care about it, work to make it prosper. At the National Freight Consortium, the new employee-owners grew so concerned about (40) their company's profits that during wage negotiations they actually pressed their union to lower its wage demands. Some economists have suggested that giving away free shares would provide a needed (45) acceleration of the privatization process. Yet they miss Thomas Paine's point that "what we obtain too cheap we esteem too lightly." In order for the far ranging benefits of individual ownership to be achieved by owners, companies, and countries, (50) employees and other individuals must make their own decisions to buy, and they must commit some of their own resources to the choice.         "98. According to the passage, all of the following were
benefits of privatizing state-owned industries in the
United Kingdom EXCEPT:
(A) Privatized industries paid taxes to the
government.
(B) The government gained revenue from selling
state-owned industries.
(C) The government repaid some of its national
debt.
(D) Profits from industries that were still state owned
increased.
(E) Total borrowings and losses of state-owned
industries decreased .

"        "99. According to the passage, which of the following
resulted in increased productivity in companies that
have been privatized?
(A) A large number of employees chose to purchase
shares in their companies.
(B) Free shares were widely distributed to individual
shareholders.
(C) The government ceased to regulate major
industries.
(D) Unions conducted wage negotiations for
employees.
(E) Employee-owners agreed to have their wages
lowered
"        "100. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
considers labor disruptions to be
(A) an inevitable problem in a weak national
economy
(B) a positive sign of employee concern about a
company
(C) a predictor of employee reactions to a
company's offer to sell shares to them
(D) a phenomenon found more often in state-owned
industries than in private companies
(E) a deterrence to high performance levels in an
industry
"        "101. The passage supports which of the following
statements about employees buying shares in their
own companies?
(A) At three different companies, approximately nine
out of ten of the workers were eligible to buy
shares in their companies.
(B) Approximately 90 percent of the eligible workers
at three different companies chose to buy
shares in their companies.
(C) The opportunity to buy shares was discouraged
by at least some labor unions.
(D) Companies that demonstrated the highest
productivity were the first to allow their
employees the opportunity to buy shares.
(E) Eligibility to buy shares was contingent on
employees' agreeing to increased work loads.
"        "102. Which of the following statements is most consistent with the principle described in lines 35-38?
(A) A democratic government that decides it is
inappropriate to own a particular industry has in
no way abdicated its responsibilities as guardian
of the public interest.
(B) The ideal way for a government to protect
employee interests is to force companies to
maintain their share of a competitive market
without government subsidies.
(C) The failure to harness the power of self-interest
is an important reason that state-owned
industries perform poorly.
(D) Governments that want to implement
privatization programs must try to eliminate all
resistance to the free-market system.
(E) The individual shareholder will reap only a minute
share of the gains from whatever sacrifices he
or she makes to achieve these gains.
"        "103. Which of the following can be inferred from the
passage about the privatization process in the United
Kingdom?
(A) It depends to a potentially dangerous degree on
individual ownership of shares.
(B) It conforms in its most general outlines to
Thomas Paine's prescription for business
ownership.
(C) It was originally conceived to include some
giving away of free shares.
(D) It has been successful, even though privatization
has failed in other countries.
(E) It is taking place more slowly than some
economists suggest is necessary.

"        "104. The quotation in lines 46-47 is most probably used to
(A) counter a position that the author of the
passage believes is incorrect
(B) state a solution to a problem described in the
previous sentence
(C) show how opponents of the viewpoint of the
author of the passage have supported their
arguments
(D) point out a paradox contained in a controversial
viewpoint
(El present a historical maxim to challenge the
principle introduced in the third paragraph
"                                                                                       

Badream

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