以下是引用lianghao在2008-12-6 15:21:00的发言:Hope somebody can give some ideas on how to deal with these two scenarios: Of the stocks you are long, you believe that one of your positions, 1 million shares of Microsoft (MSFT) has 20% upside and shouldn't decline by more than 5% over the next three months. However, under no condition do you want to increase your exposure to the stock. How about constructing a Put Spread Collar (Long 1 put + Short 1 put + Short 1 call) on the MSFT position? You are bullish on one stock which you do not own, say, Merck (MRK), but believe that over the next six months you should wait until it declines 20% in price before investing $25 million in a position. You can trade OTC options so you can customize the term and strike price. Go into a Knock-in Barrier Option contract I guess? I can calculate the pricing. Just suggest a general strategy. This post will be deleted soon. Thanks! Hi there, Please find my solutions below: If you reckon that the upside cap should be fixed at 120% and the downside floor should not be lower than 95%, you need to go into a bull spread. Basically, long a put option at 95% whilst short another put option at 120% of the spot. In this case, you will have initial credit in your premium. Hence, this is a bull vertical spread. However, this does not provide you with a full upside exposure as the cap is locked the profit at 120%. Apparently, the above method only solves half of your problem but does not consider if the level could be between 95% and 100%. You can buy an in-the-money revertible barrier put option with a strike level at 120% and knock in level at 100%. At the same time, you short a conventional put with strike price standing on 120%. As the exotic option should provide an outperformance compared with the conventional one, this strategy should match your investment purpose. To be honest, this is a fairly conservative strategy and your P&L will not be dramatically large. However, I would still say that it is an effective way to protect your capital. On the other hand, between 100% and approximately 118%, you P&L will be negative. I admit that this strategy does not completely meet your need. The third way I can think about is to short a straddle or strangle. I think this is the best solution. If you choose to straddle, you can fix your strike at (95%+120%)/2=107.5%. If you go with a strangle, just short a put at 95% and short a call at 120%. I will recommend you to go with this method as it's straightforward enough. However, please bear in mind that your client is bearing with significant short volatility risk. Please let me know if I have any logical flaws. Happy to discuss. Many thanks.
[此贴子已经被作者于2008-12-20 22:16:36编辑过] |