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For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century, when many feudal institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared.

The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims?

正确答案: A

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发表于 2012-9-10 17:04:52 | 只看该作者 回帖奖励 |倒序浏览 |阅读模式
For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century, when many feudal institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared.
The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims?
(A) To say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of a nobility is to employ a definition that distorts history.答案
(B) Prior to the twelfth century, the institution of European feudalism functioned without the presence of a dominant class.
(C) The fact that a societal group has a distinct legal status is not in itself sufficient to allow that group to be properly considered a social class.
(D) The decline of feudalism in Europe was the only cause of the rise of a European nobility.
(E) The prior existence of feudal institutions is a prerequisite for the emergence of a nobility, as defined in the strictest sense of the term.

不懂为什么封建主义认为贵族阶级的存在是在扭曲历史,我认为只是扭曲观念而已,历史没法扭曲啊,题干里也说了,封建主义就是假设贵族阶级存在的啊,这不是已经是历史了吗?
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Advertisement: In today’s world, you make a statement about the person you are by the car you own. The message of the SKX Mach-5 is unambiguous: Its owner is Dynamic, Aggressive, and Successful. Shouldn’t you own an SKX Mach-5?
If the claims made in the advertisement are true, which one of the following must also be true on the basis of them?
(A) Anyone who is dynamic and aggressive is also successful.
(B) Anyone who is not both dynamic and successful would misrepresent himself or herself by being the owner of an SKX Mach-
5.答案
(C) People who buy the SKX Mach-5 are usually more aggressive than people who buy other cars.
(D) No car other than the SKX Mach-5 announces that its owner is successful.
(E) Almost no one would fail to recognize the kind of person who would choose to own an SKX Mach-5
不懂为什么B是对的,如果一个人不dynamic, sucesssful但他aggresive,SKX Mach-5也没有misrepresent他啊
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沙发
发表于 2012-9-11 09:27:43 | 只看该作者
第一题要理解 presupposed的意思,the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class的意思是f这个定义的存在必须以noble存在为前提,然后后面都在说不是这样的Yet there cannot be a noble class就否定了,后面说Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century……  nobility first appeared,说明19世纪就有f了,但20世纪才有noble

然后答案A就是概括了这段话的意思说f存在要求noble先存在为前提是对历史的扭曲。正符合原文。

第二题我觉得A C D E都错的很明显。然后B说如果一个人他既不dynamic也不successful,他would misrepresent himself or herself by being the owner of an SKX Mach5,我理解为他就不配自称是SKX的owner,与原文符合,所以是对的~原文要求三个特点,而他缺少其中两个,只有aggressive是不行的呀
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