陈向东GMAT逻辑 第294页 Q4__跪求解答！着急求助中！

kate198501

The garment industry is labor-intensive; the production of garments requires the employment of a relatively large number of people. The auto industry is capital-intensive; a large amount of money is invested in elaborate equipment run by a relatively small number of people. If fringe benefits are not considered, a typical US garment worker in 1979 earned 46 percent of a typical auto worker's wages.

Which of the following if true, is likely to be among the factors that account for the disparity between auto workers' and garment workers' wages?

(A) There's generally less variation among the wages of garment industry workers than among those of auto industry workers.
(B) Wage increases in the auto industry have a smaller effect on manufacturers' total costs than do wage increases in the garment industry.
(C) The fringe benefits that auto makers provide for their employees are more comprehensive than are those provided for garment workers.
(D) The auto industry faces more competition from companies outside the US paying low wages than does the garment industry
(E) The auto industry employs a larger total number of workers than does the garment industry.

答案选B。感觉这个逻辑是似懂非懂，不够清楚。劳各位畅所欲言，不吝赐教！
看帖的童鞋们帮忙顶一下帖，谢谢啦！

tcljtclj123

题目说服装业是劳动密集型，汽车业是资本密集型，服装业的工人数量比汽车业要多。假设服装业有100个工人，汽车业有10个工人，那如果给每个人涨10块工资，服装业的成本就会上升更多，因此服装业工资较低才能便于控制成本，也就解释了为什么服装业工人工资低于汽车业工人工资。嗯，大概就是这个意思吧，第一次回帖也不知道我说清楚没有。

kate198501

好像有道理。非常感谢！