40. In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee consumption. During this same time, there has been increasing publicity about the adverse long-term effects on health of the caffeine in coffee. Therefore, the decrease in coffee consumption must have been caused by consumers’ awareness of the harmful effects of caffeine.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously calls into question the explanation above? (A) On average, people consume 30 percent less coffee today than they did 10 years ago. (B) Heavy coffee drinkers may have mild withdrawal symptoms, such as headaches, for a day or so after significantly decreasing their coffee consumption. (C) Sales of specialty types of coffee have held steady as sales of regular brands have declined. (D) The consumption of fruit juices and caffeine-free herbal teas has increased over the past decade. (E) Coffee prices increased steadily in the past decade because of unusually severe frosts in coffee-growing nations. 我的思路 A 无关比例 B 支持 C无关 D有些支持，因为你消耗了大量的juice，有些像支持你对于咖啡认识变了。但是，主要还有无关的因素存在 E 我想说我不明白为什么这个正确，原文说increase significantly但是选项却说steadily价格平稳增加，我就不理解了如果是平稳增加的话怎么会有原文的事实：大幅度减少呢？按道理说每年增加一点，也不会造成某一个时候消费猛降吧？
Two things happened together: 1) coffee consumption dropped; and 2) bad effects of coffee were publicized. Therefore, the author says that 2) caused 1) or "bad publicity of coffee led to the decrease in sale"!
Choice E) says that it is another reason - the price hike caused the drop in coffee consumtion. So E) provides an alternative explanation for 1) to happen. E) is a weakener.
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发表于 2011-4-11 08:09:42
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