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[求助] OG11-34 再问

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楼主
发表于 2008-3-10 21:23:00 | 只看该作者

[求助] OG11-34 再问

 

34.         A company's two divisions performed with remarkable consistency over the past three years: in each of those years, the pharmaceuticals division has accounted for roughly 20 percent of dollar sales and 40 percent of profits, and the chemicals division for the balance.

Regarding the past three years, which of the following can properly be inferred from the statement above?

(A)          Total dollar sales for each of the company's divisions have remained roughly constant.

(B)          The pharmaceuticals division has faced stiffer competition in its markets than has the chemicals division.

(C)          The chemicals division has realized lower profits per dollar of sales than has the pharmaceuticals division.

(D)         

The product mix offered by each of the

company's divisions has remained unchanged.

(E)          Highly profitable products accounted for a higher percentage of the chemicals division's sales than of the pharmaceuticals division's.

OG的解释是C dept. 占了80的sales和60的profits。也就是说OG把for the balance 解释成了“差额”的意思吧。

可是,for the balance 是一定有这个意思吗?能不能解释为C dept 没有利润的意思。当然这两个解释的答案是一样的。

往财务专家解释一下!

沙发
发表于 2008-3-10 21:48:00 | 只看该作者
"for the balance" is the amount left. In this case, 1-20%=80%, 1-40%=60% 
板凳
 楼主| 发表于 2008-3-11 08:07:00 | 只看该作者

To yssunshine:

谢谢!这样解释倒是比较严密,不然谁知道共有几个部门! hehe!

地板
发表于 2008-9-5 08:55:00 | 只看该作者

谢谢

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