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For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century, when many feudal institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared.

The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims?

ATo say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of a nobility is to employ a definition that distorts history
BPrior to the twelfth century, the institution of European feudalism functioned without the presence of a dominant class
CThe fact that a societal group has a distinct legal status is not in itself sufficient to allow that group to be properly considered a social class
DThe decline of feudalism in Europe was the only cause of the rise of a European nobility
EThe prior existence of feudal institutions is a prerequisite for the emergence of a nobility, as defined in the strictest sense of the term

正确答案: A

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wwc008love

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发表于 2011-5-21 13:32:00 | 显示全部楼层

该题为归纳题。writer的定义。。nobility是feudalism存在的前提
但是后来作者反驳了，说在历史中除非法律认可什么贵族有继承权的时候，noble class才有可能存在。。
The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims?
因为作者的推断是正确的，所以如果nobility在那时根本不存在，就不可能有feudalism了。。所以是歪曲历史。
E 是逆命题，所以错 BC无关 D the only cause 不对