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My understanding is a firm can only generate rents from firm-specific human capital since the firm must pay a market price to general human capital, otherwise the employee can choose to leave the firm and find another job in the market. Only when the human capital is firm-specific, the firm has a chance to generate rents. For example, if an employee can produce $3 goods per day, and she can produce the goods for all the firms in the market. Then, you need to pay this person $3 as her salary. If you pay her $2.5, she will go to another firm which will pay her $2.9. Thus, in the end, general human capital can not generate any profit for any firm. However, if an employee can produce $3 per day for your firm and she can only produce $2 for all other firms. You can pay, for example, $2.5 to her and generate rents from her work. To some extent, the idea is similar with TCE. But I'm not quite understand why top management can benefit from both...what do you mean "top manager acquire human capital"? How can an individual acquire human capital... |
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