2006年至2010年全套机经下载（包括新托福小橘宝完整版）

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哥特小巫

Passage 1
      Recent years have brought minority-owned
businesses in the United States unprecedented
opportunities-as well as new and significant risks.
Civil rights activists have long argued that one of
(5)  the principal reasons why Blacks, Hispanics, and
other minority groups have difficulty establishing
themselves in business is that they lack access to
the sizable orders and subcontracts that are gener-
ated by large companies. Now Congress, in appar-
(10) ent agreement, has required by law that businesses
awarded federal contracts of more than $500,000
do their best to find minority subcontractors and
record their efforts to do so on forms filed with the
government. Indeed, some federal and local agen-
(15) cies have gone so far as to set specific percentage
goals for apportioning parts of public works con-
tracts to minority enterprises.
       Corporate response appears to have been sub-
stantial. According to figures collected in 1977,
(20) the total of corporate contracts with minority busi-
nesses rose from $77 million in 1972 to $1. lbillion
in 1977. The projected total of corporate contracts
with minority businesses for the early 1980's is
estimated to be over 53 billion per year with no
(25) letup anticipated in the next decade.
  Promising as it is for minority businesses, this
increased patronage poses dangers for them, too.
First, minority firms risk expanding too fast and
overextending themselves financially, since most
(30) are small concerns and, unlike large businesses,
they often need to make substantial investments in
new plants, staff, equipment, and the like in order
to perform work subcontracted to them. If, there-
after, their subcontracts are for some reason
(35) reduced, such firms can face potentially crippling
fixed expenses. The world of corporate purchasing
can be frustrating for small entrepreneurs who get
requests for elaborate formal estimates and bids.
Both consume valuable time and resources, and a
(40)  small company's efforts must soon result in
orders, or both the morale and the financial health
of the business will suffer.
   A second risk is that White-owned companies
may seek to cash in on the increasing apportion-
(45)         ments through formation of joint ventures with
minority-owned concerns. Of course, in many
instances there are legitimate reasons for joint
ventures; clearly, White and minority enterprises
can team up to acquire business that neither could
(50)        acquire alone. But civil rights groups and minority
business owners have complained to Congress about
minorities being set up as "fronts" with White back-
ing, rather than being accepted as full partners in
legitimate joint ventures.
(55)      Third, a minority enterprise that secures the
business of one large corporate customer often run
the danger of becoming--and remaining-dependent.
Even in the best of circumstances, fierce compe-
tition from larger, more established companies
(60)         makes it difficult for small concerns to broaden
their customer bases: when such firms have nearly
guaranteed orders from a single corporate bene-
factor, they may truly have to struggle against
complacency arising from their current success.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
  (A) present a commonplace idea and its  
     inaccuracies
  (B) describe a situation and its potential drawbacks
  (C) propose a temporary solution to a problem
  (D) analyze a frequent source of disagreement
  (E) explore the implications of a finding

2. The passage supplies information that would answer
  which of the following questions?
  (A) What federal agencies have set percentage goals for
     the use of minority-owned businesses in public
     works contracts?
  (B) To which government agencies must
     businesses awarded federal contracts report their
     efforts to find minority subcontractors?
  (C) How widespread is the use of minority-owned
     concerns as "fronts" by White backers seeking to
     obtain subcontracts?
  (D) How many more minority-owned businesses were
     there in 1977 than in 1972?
  (E) What is one set of conditions under which a
     small business might find itself financially over-
     extended?
  
3. According to the passage, civil rights activists
  maintain that one disadvantage under which
  minority- owned businesses have traditionally had
  to labor is that they have
  (A) been especially vulnerable to governmental
     mismanagement of the economy
  (B) been denied bank loans at rates comparable to
     those afforded larger competitors
  (C) not had sufficient opportunity to secure business
     created by large corporations
  (D) not been able to advertise in those media that
     reach large numbers of potential customers
  (E) not had adequate representation in the centers of
     government power

4. The passage suggests that the failure of a large
  business to have its bids for subcontracts result
  quickly in orders might cause it to
  (A) experience frustration but not serious financial
     harm
  (B) face potentially crippling fixed expenses
  (C) have to record its efforts on forms filed with the
     government
  (D) increase its spending with minority
     subcontractors
  (E) revise its procedure for making bids for federal
     contracts and subcontracts

5. The author implies that a minority-owned concern
  that does the greater part of its business with one
  large corporate customer should
  (A) avoid competition with larger, more established
     concerns by not expanding
  (B) concentrate on securing even more business
     from that corporation  
  (C) try to expand its customer base to avoid
     becoming dependent on the corporation
  (D) pass on some of the work to be done for the
     corporation to other minority-owned concerns
  (E) use its influence with the corporation to promote
     subcontracting with other minority concerns

6. It can be inferred from the passage that, compared
   with the requirements of law, the percentage goals
   set by "some federal and local agencies "(lines 14-
   15) are
  (A) more popular with large corporations
  (B) more specific
  (C) less controversial
  (D) less expensive to enforce
  (E) easier to comply with

7. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the
  author's assertion that, in the 1970's, corporate
  response to federal requirements (lines 18-19) was
  substantial
  (A) Corporate contracts with minority-owned
      businesses totaled $2 billion in 1979.
  (B) Between 1970 and 1972, corporate contracts with
      minority-owned businesses declined by 25
      percent.
  (C) The figures collected in 1977 underrepresented
      the extent of corporate contracts with minority-
      owned businesses.
  (D) The estimate of corporate spending with
      minority-owned businesses in 1980 is
      approximately $10 million too high.
  (E) The $1.1 billion represented the same
      percentage of total corporate spending in 1977
      as did $77 million in 1972.

8. The author would most likely agree with which of the
   following statements about corporate response to
   working with minority subcontractors?
  (A) Annoyed by the proliferation of "front"
     organizations, corporations are likely to reduce
     their efforts to work with minority-owned
     subcontractors in the near future.
  (B) Although corporations showed considerable
     interest in working with minority businesses in
     the 1970's, their aversion to government
     paperwork made them reluctant to pursue many
     government contracts.
  (C) The significant response of corporations in the
     1970's is likely to be sustained and conceivably
     be increased throughout the 1980's.
  (D) Although corporations are eager to cooperate
     with minority-owned businesses, a shortage of
     capital in the 1970's made substantial response
     impossible.
  (E) The enormous corporate response has all but
     eliminated the dangers of overexpansion that
     used to plague small minority-owned businesses.


Passage 2
      Woodrow Wilson was referring to the liberal
idea of the economic market when he said that
the free enterprise system is the most efficient
economic system. Maximum freedom means
(5) maximum productiveness; our "openness" is to
be the measure of our stability. Fascination with
this ideal has made Americans defy the "Old
World" categories of settled possessiveness versus
unsettling deprivation, the cupidity of retention
(10) versus the cupidity of seizure, a "status quo"
defended or attacked. The United States, it was
believed, had no status quo ante. Our only "sta-
tion" was the turning of a stationary wheel, spin-
ning faster and faster. We did not base our
(15) system on property but opportunity---which
meant we based it not on stability but on mobil-
ity. The more things changed, that is, the more
rapidly the wheel turned, the steadier we would
be. The conventional picture of class politics is
(20) composed of the Haves, who want a stability to
keep what they have, and the Have-Nots, who
want a touch of instability and change in which
to scramble for the things they have not. But
Americans imagined a condition in which spec-
(25) ulators, self-makers, runners are always using the
new opportunities given by our land. These eco-
nomic leaders (front-runners) would thus he
mainly agents of change. The nonstarters were
considered the ones who wanted stability, a
(30) strong referee to give them some position in the
race, a regulative hand to calm manic specula-
tion; an authority that can call things to a halt,
begin things again from compensatorily stag-
gered "starting lines."
(35)   "Reform" in America has been sterile because
it can imagine no change except through the
extension of this metaphor of a race, wider inclu-
sion of competitors, "a piece of the action," as it
were, for the disenfranchised. There is no
(40) attempt to call off the race. Since our only sta-
bility is change, America seems not to honor the
quiet work that achieves social interdependence
and stability. There is, in our legends, no hero-
ism of the office clerk, no stable industrial work
(45) force of the people who actually make the system
work. There is no pride in being an employee
(Wilson asked for a return to the time when
everyone was an employer). There has been no
boasting about our social workers---they are
(50) merely signs of the system's failure, of opportu-
nity denied or not taken, of things to be elimi-
nated. We have no pride in our growing
interdependence, in the fact that our system can
serve others, that we are able to help those in
(55) need; empty boasts from the past make us
ashamed of our present achievements, make us
try to forget or deny them, move away from
them. There is no honor but in the Wonderland
race we must all run, all trying to win, none
(60) winning in the end (for there is no end).

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
  (A) criticize the inflexibility of American economic
     mythology
  (B) contrast "Old World" and "New World" economic
     ideologies
  (C) challenge the integrity of traditional political
     leaders
  (D) champion those Americans whom the author
     deems to be neglected
  (E) suggest a substitute for the traditional metaphor
     of a race

2. According to the passage, "Old World" values were
   based on
  (A) ability
  (B) property
  (C) family connections
  (D) guild hierarchies
  (E) education

3. In the context of the author's discussion of
  regulating change, which of the following could be
  most probably regarded as a "strong referee" (line
  30) in the United States?
  (A) A school principal
  (B) A political theorist
  (C) A federal court judge
  (D) A social worker
  (E) A government inspector

4. The author sets off the word "Reform" (line 35) with
  quotation marks in order to
  (A) emphasize its departure from the concept of
     settled possessiveness
  (B) show his support for a systematic program of
     change
  (C) underscore the flexibility and even amorphousness
     of United States society.
  (D) indicate that the term was one of Wilson's favorites  
  (E) assert that reform in the United States has not
     been fundamental

5. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
  most probably thinks that giving the disenfranchised
  "a piece of the action " (line 38) is
  (A) a compassionate, if misdirected, legislative
     measure  
  (B) an example of Americans' resistance to profound
    social change
  (C) an innovative program for genuine social reform
  (D) a monument to the efforts of industrial reformers
  (E) a surprisingly "Old World" remedy for social ills

6. Which of the following metaphors could the author
  most appropriately use to summarize his own
  assessment of the American economic system
  (lines 35-60)?
  (A) A windmill
  (B) A waterfall
  (C) A treadmill
  (D) A gyroscope
  (E) A bellows

7. It can be inferred from the passage that Woodrow
   Wilson's ideas about the economic market
  (A) encouraged those who "make the system work"
     (lines 45-46)
  (B) perpetuated traditional legends about America
  (C) revealed the prejudices of a man born wealthy
  (D) foreshadowed the stock market crash of 1929
  (E) began a tradition of presidential proclamations on
     economics

8. The passage contains information that would answer
   which of the following questions?
  ﾢ￱.What techniques have industrialists used to
     manipulate a free market?
  ﾢ￲.In what ways are " New World" and " Old World"
     economic policies similar?
  ﾢ￳. Has economic policy in the United States tended
      to reward independent action?
  (A) ﾢ￱only
  (B) ﾢ￲only
  (C) ﾢ￳ only
  (D) ﾢ￱and ﾢ￲ only
  (E) ﾢ￲and ﾢ￳ only

9. Which of the following best expresses the author's
   main point?
  (A) Americans' pride in their jobs continues to give
     them stamina today.
  (B) The absence of a status quo ante has
     undermined United States economic structure.
  (C) The free enterprise system has been only a   
      useless concept in the United States
  (D) The myth of the American free enterprise system
      is seriously flawed.
  (E) Fascination with the ideal of "openness" has
      made Americans a progressive people.


Passage 3
      No very satisfactory account of the mechanism
that caused the formation of the ocean basins has
yet been given. The traditional view supposes
that the upper mantle of the earth behaves as a
(5)  liquid when it is subjected to small forces for
long periods and that differences in temperature
under oceans and continents are sufficient to
produce convection in the mantle of the earth
with rising convection currents under the mid-
(10) ocean ridges and sinking currents under the con-
tinents. Theoretically, this convection would
carry the continental plates along as though they
were on a conveyor belt and would provide the
forces needed to produce the split that occurs
(15) along the ridge. This view may be correct: it has
the advantage that the currents are driven by
temperature differences that themselves depend
on the position of the continents. Such a back-
coupling, in which the position of the moving
(20) plate has an impact on the forces that move it,
could produce complicated and varying motions.
   On the other hand, the theory is implausible
because convection does not normally occur
along lines. and it certainly does not occur along
(25) lines broken by frequent offsets or changes in
direction, as the ridge is. Also it is difficult to see
how the theory applies to the plate between the
Mid-Atlantic Ridge and the ridge in the Indian
Ocean. This plate is growing on both sides, and
(30) since there is no intermediate trench, the two
ridges must be moving apart. It would be odd if
the rising convection currents kept exact pace
with them. An alternative theory is that the sink-
ing part of the plate, which is denser than the
(35) hotter surrounding mantle, pulls the rest of the
plate after it. Again it is difficult to see how this
applies to the ridge in the South Atlantic, where
neither the African nor the American plate has a
sinking part.
(40)   Another possibility is that the sinking plate
cools the neighboring mantle and produces con-
vection currents that move the plates. This last
theory is attractive because it gives some hope of
explaining the enclosed seas, such as the Sea of
(45) Japan. These seas have a typical oceanic floor,
except that the floor is overlaid by several kilo-
meters of sediment. Their floors have probably
been sinking for long periods. It seems possible
that a sinking current of cooled mantle material
(50) on the upper side of the plate might be the cause
of such deep basins. The enclosed seas are an
important feature of the earth's surface, and
seriously require explanation in because, addi-
tion to the enclosed seas that are developing at
present behind island arcs, there are a number of
(55) older ones of possibly similar origin, such as the
Gulf of Mexico, the Black Sea, and perhaps the
North Sea.

1. According to the traditional view of the origin of the
  ocean basins, which of the following is sufficient to
  move the continental plates?
  (A) Increases in sedimentation on ocean floors
  (B) Spreading of ocean trenches
  (C) Movement of mid-ocean ridges
  (D) Sinking of ocean basins
  (E) Differences in temperature under oceans and
     continents

2. It can be inferred from the passage that, of the follo-
  wing, the deepest sediments would be found in the
  (A) Indian Ocean
  (B) Black Sea
  (C) Mid-Atlantic
  (D) South Atlantic
  (E) Pacific

3. The author refers to a "conveyor belt " in line 13 in
  order to
  (A) illustrate the effects of convection in the mantle
  (B) show how temperature differences depend on
     the positions of the continents
  (C) demonstrate the linear nature of the Mid-Atlantic
     Ridge
  (D) describe the complicated motions made possible
      by back-coupling
  (E) account for the rising currents under certain mid-
     ocean ridges

4. The author regards the traditional view of the origin
   of the oceans with
  (A) slight apprehension
  (B) absolute indifference
  (C) indignant anger
  (D) complete disbelief
  (E) guarded skepticism

5. According to the passage, which of the following are
  separated by a plate that is growing on both sides?
  (A) The Pacific Ocean and the Sea of Japan
  (B) The South Atlantic Ridge and the North Sea Ridge
  (C) The Gulf of Mexico and the South Atlantic Ridge
  (D) The Mid-Atlantic Ridge and the Indian Ocean
      Ridge
  (E) The Black Sea and the Sea of Japan

6. Which of the following, if it could be demonstrated,
  would most support the traditional view of ocean
  formation?
  (A) Convection usually occurs along lines.
  (B) The upper mantle behaves as a dense solid.
  (C) Sedimentation occurs at a constant rate.
  (D) Sinking plates cool the mantle.
  (E) Island arcs surround enclosed seas.

7. According to the passage, the floor of the Black Sea
  can best be compared to a
  (A) rapidly moving conveyor belt
  (B) slowly settling foundation
  (C) rapidly expanding balloon
  (D) violently erupting volcano
  (E) slowly eroding mountain

8. Which of the following titles would best describe the
  content of the passage?
  (A) A Description of the Oceans of the World
  (B) Several Theories of Ocean Basin Formation
  (C) The Traditional View of the Oceans
  (D) Convection and Ocean Currents
  (E) Temperature Differences Among the Oceans of
     the World


Passage 4
     The fossil remains of the first flying vertebrates, the
   pterosaurs, have intrigued paleontologists for more
than two centuries. How such large creatures, which
  weighed in some cases as much as a piloted hang-glider
(5) and had wingspans from 8 to 12 meters, solved the
problems of powered flight, and exactly what these
creatures were--reptiles or birds-are among the ques-
tions scientists have puzzled over.
  Perhaps the least controversial assertion about the
(10) pterosaurs is that they were reptiles. Their skulls,
pelvises, and hind feet are reptilian. The anatomy of
their wings suggests that they did not evolve into the
class of birds. In pterosaurs a greatly elongated fourth
finger of each forelimb supported a winglike membrane.
(15) The other fingers were short and reptilian, with sharp
claws. In birds the second finger is the principal strut
of the wing, which consists primarily of feathers. If the
pterosaurs walked on all fours, the three short fingers
may have been employed for grasping. When a
(20) pterosaur walked or remained stationary, the fourth
finger, and with it the wing, could only turn upward in
an extended inverted V-shape along each side of the animal's body.
   The pterosaurs resembled both birds and bats in
(25) their overall structure and proportions. This is not sur-
prising because the design of any flying vertebrate is
subject to aerodynamic constraints. Both the pterosaurs
and the birds have hollow bones, a feature that repre-
sents a savings in weight. In the birds, however, these
(30) bones are reinforced more massively by internal struts.
  Although scales typically cover reptiles, the
pterosaurs probably had hairy coats. T.H. Huxley rea-
soned that flying vertebrates must have been warm-
blooded because flying implies a high rate of
(35) metabolism, which in turn implies a high internal tem-
perature. Huxley speculated that a coat of hair would
insulate against loss of body heat and might streamline
the body to reduce drag in flight. The recent discovery
of a pterosaur specimen covered in long, dense, and
(40) relatively thick hairlike fossil material was the first clear
evidence that his reasoning was correct.
   Efforts to explain how the pterosaurs became air-
borne have led to suggestions that they launched them-
selves by jumping from cliffs, by dropping from trees.
(45) or even by rising into light winds from the crests of
waves. Each hypothesis has its difficulties. The first
wrongly assumes that the pterosaurs' hind feet rese-
mbled a bat's and could serve as hooks by which the
animal could hang in preparation for flight. The second
(50) hypothesis seems unlikely because large pterosaurs
could not have landed in trees without damaging their
wings. The third calls for high waves to channel
updrafts. The wind that made such waves however,
might have been too strong for the pterosaurs to
(55) control their flight once airborne.

1. It can be inferred from the passage that scientists now
  generally agree that the
(A) enormous wingspan of the pterosaurs enabled
     them to fly great distances
(B) structure of the skeleton of the pterosaurs suggests a
    close evolutionary relationship to bats
(C) fossil remains of the pterosaurs reveal how they   
    solved the problem of powered flight
(D) pterosaurs were reptiles
(E) pterosaurs walked on all fours

2. The author views the idea that the pterosaurs
   became airborne by rising into light winds created
   by waves as
  (A) revolutionary
  (B) unlikely
  (C) unassailable
  (D) probable
  (E) outdated
3. According to the passage, the skeleton of a
  pterosaur can be distinguished from that of a bird by
  the
(A) size of its wingspan
(B) presence of hollow spaces in its bones
(C) anatomic origin of its wing strut
(D) presence of hooklike projections on its hind feet
(E) location of the shoulder joint joining the wing to its
body

4. The ideas attributed to T.H. Huxley in the passage
  suggest that he would most likely agree with which
  of the following statements?
  (A) An animal's brain size has little bearing on its
     ability to master complex behaviors.
  (B) An animal's appearance is often influenced by
     environmental requirements and physical
     capabilities.
  (C) Animals within a given family group are unlikely
     to change their appearance dramatically over a
     period of time.
  (D) The origin of flight in vertebrates was an
     accidental development rather than the outcome
     of specialization or adaptation.
  (E) The pterosaurs should be classified as birds, not
      reptiles.

5. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
   following is characteristic of the pterosaurs?
  (A) They were unable to fold their wings when not in
      use.
  (B) They hung upside down from branches as bats
     do before flight.
  (C) They flew in order to capture prey.
  (D) They were an early stage in the evolution of the
      birds.
  (E) They lived primarily in a forestlike habitat.

6.Which of the following best describes the organization
  of the last paragraph of the passage?
  (A) New evidence is introduced to support a
      traditional point of view.
  (B) Three explanations for a phenomenon are
     presented, and each is disputed by means of
     specific information.
  (C) Three hypotheses are outlined, and evidence
      supporting each is given.
  (D) Recent discoveries are described, and their
     implications for future study are projected
  (E) A summary of the material in the preceding
     paragraphs is presented, and conclusions are  
     drawn.

7. It can be inferred from the passage that some
  scientists believe that pterosaurs
  (A) lived near large bodies of water
  (B) had sharp teeth for tearing food
  (C) were attacked and eaten by larger reptiles
  (D) had longer tails than many birds
  (E) consumed twice their weight daily to maintain
     their body temperature


Passage 5
       How many really suffer as a result of labor mar-
ket problems? This is one of the most critical yet
contentious social policy questions. In many ways,
our social statistics exaggerate the degree of hard-
(5) ship. Unemployment does not have the same dire
consequences today as it did in the 1930's when
most of the unemployed were primary breadwin-
ners, when income and earnings were usually much
closer to the margin of subsistence, and when there
(10) were no countervailing social programs for those
failing in the labor market. Increasing affluence, the
rise of families with more than one wage earner, the
growing predominance of secondary earners among
the unemployed, and improved social welfare pro-
(15) tection have unquestionably mitigated the conse-
quences of joblessness. Earnings and income data
also overstate the dimensions of hardship. Among
the millions with hourly earnings at or below the
minimum wage level, the overwhelming majority
(20) are from multiple-earner, relatively affluent
   families. Most of those counted by the poverty
statistics are elderly or handicapped or have family
responsibilities which keep them out of the labor
force, so the poverty statistics are by no means an
(25) accurate indicator of labor market pathologies.
  Yet there are also many ways our social statistics
underestimate the degree of labor-market-related
hardship. The unemployment counts exclude the
millions of fully employed workers whose wages are
(30) so low that their families remain in poverty. Low
wages and repeated or prolonged unemployment
frequently interact to undermine the capacity for
self-support. Since the number experiencing jobless-
ness at some time during the year is several times
(35)the number unemployed in any month, those who
suffer as a result of forced idleness can equal or
exceed average annual unemployment, even though
only a minority of the jobless in any month really
suffer. For every person counted in the monthly
(40) unemployment tallies, there is another working
part-time because of the inability to find full-time
work, or else outside the labor force but wanting a
job. Finally, income transfers in our country have
always focused on the elderly, disabled, and depen-
(45)dent, neglecting the needs of the working poor, so
that the dramatic expansion of cash and in-kind
transfers does not necessarily mean that those fail-
ing in the labor market are adequately protected.
As a result of such contradictory evidence, it is
(50) uncertain whether those suffering seriously as a
result of thousands or the tens of millions, and,
hence, whether high levels of joblessness can be tol-
erated or must be countered by job creation and
(55) economic stimulus. There is only one area of agree-
ment in this debate---that the existing poverty,
employment, and earnings statistics are inadequate
for one their primary applications, measuring the
consequences of labor market problems.

1. Which of the following is the principal topic of the
   passage?
  (A) What causes labor market pathologies that result
      in suffering
  (B) Why income measures are imprecise in measuring
     degrees of poverty
  (C) Which of the currently used statistical procedures
     are the best for estimating the incidence of
     hardship that is due to unemployment
  (D) Where the areas of agreement are among
     poverty, employment, and earnings figures
  (E) How social statistics give an unclear picture of the
     degree of hardship caused by low wages and
     insufficient employment opportunities

2. The author uses "labor market problems" in lines 1-2
   to refer to which of the following?
  (A) The overall causes of poverty
  (B) Deficiencies in the training of the work force
  (C) Trade relationships among producers of goods
  (D) Shortages of jobs providing adequate income
  (E) Strikes and inadequate supplies of labor

3. The author contrasts the 1930's with the present in
  order to show that
  (A) more people were unemployed in the 1930's
  (B) unemployment now has less severe effects
  (C) social programs are more needed now
  (D) there now is a greater proportion of elderly and
     handicapped people among those in poverty
  (E) poverty has increased since the 1930's

4.Which of the following proposals best responds to the
  issues raised by the author?
(A) Innovative programs using multiple approaches
should be set up to reduce the level of
unemployment.
(B) A compromise should be found between the
    positions of those who view joblessness as an
    evil greater than economic control and those who
    hold the opposite view.
(C) New statistical indices should be developed to
    measure the degree to which unemployment and
    inadequately paid employment cause suffering.
(D) Consideration should be given to the ways in which
statistics can act as partial causes of the phenomena
that they purport to measure.
(E) The labor force should be restructured so that it
corresponds to the range of job vacancies.

5.The author's purpose in citing those who are repeatedly
  unemployed during a twelve-month period is most
  probably to show that
(A) there are several factors that cause the payment
    of low wages to some members of the labor force
(B) unemployment statistics can underestimate the   
    hardship resulting from joblessness
(C) recurrent inadequacies in the labor market can
    exist and can cause hardships for individual
    workers
(D) a majority of those who are jobless at any one
    time to not suffer severe hardship
(E) there are fewer individuals who are without jobs
   at some time during a year than would be
   expected on the basis of monthly unemployment
   figures

6. The author states that the mitigating effect of social
   programs involving income transfers on the income
   level of low-income people is often not felt by
  (A) the employed poor
  (B) dependent children in single-earner families
  (C) workers who become disabled
  (D) retired workers
  (E) full-time workers who become unemployed

7. According to the passage, one factor that causes
  unemployment and earnings figures to overpredict
  the amount of economic hardship is the
  (A) recurrence of periods of unemployment for a
     group of low-wage workers
  (B) possibility that earnings may be received from
     more than one job per worker
  (C) fact that unemployment counts do not include
     those who work for low wages and remain poor
  (D) establishment of a system of record-keeping that
     makes it possible to compile poverty statistics
  (E) prevalence, among low-wage workers and the
     unemployed, of members of families in which
     others are employed

8. The conclusion stated in lines 33-39 about the
   number of people who suffer as a result of forced
   idleness depends primarily on the point that
  (A) in times of high unemployment, there are some
     people who do not remain unemployed for long
  (B) the capacity for self-support depends on
     receiving moderate-to-high wages  
  (C) those in forced idleness include, besides the
     unemployed, both underemployed part-time
     workers and those not actively seeking work
  (D) at different times during the year, different people
     are unemployed
  (E) many of those who are affected by unemploy-
     ment are dependents of unemployed workers

9. Which of the following, if true, is the best criticism of
  the author's argument concerning why poverty
  statistics cannot properly be used to show the effects of
     problems in the labor market?
  (A) A short-term increase in the number of those in
     poverty can indicate a shortage of jobs because the
     basic number of those unable to accept employment
     remains approximately constant.
  (B) For those who are in poverty as a result of
     joblessness, there are social programs available
     that provide a minimum standard of living.
  (C) Poverty statistics do not consistently agree with
     earnings statistics, when each is taken as a
     measure of hardship resulting from unemployment.
  (D) The elderly and handicapped categories include
     many who previously were employed in the labor
     market.
  (E) Since the labor market is global in nature, poor
     workers in one country are competing with poor
     workers in another with respect to the level of
     wages and the existence of jobs.


Passage 6
      In the eighteenth century, Japan's feudal
overlords, from the shogun to the humblest
samurai, found themselves under financial
stress. In part, this stress can be attributed to
(5) the overlords' failure to adjust to a rapidly ex-
panding economy, but the stress was also due to
factors beyond the overlords' control. Concen-
tration of the samurai in castle-towns had acted
as a stimulus to trade. Commercial efficiency, in
(10) turn, had put temptations in the way of buyers.
Since most samurai had been reduced to idleness
by years of peace, encouraged to engage in
scholarship and martial exercises or to perform
administrative tasks that took little time, it is
(15) not surprising that their tastes and habits grew
expensive. Overlords' income, despite the in-
crease in rice production among their tenant
farmers, failed to keep pace with their expenses.
Although shortfalls in overlords' income re-
(20) sulted almost as much from laxity among their
   tax collectors (the nearly inevitable outcome of
   hereditary officeholding) as from their higher
   standards of living, a misfortune like a fire or
   flood, bringing an increase in expenses or a drop
(25) in revenue, could put a domain in debt to the
   city rice-brokers who handled its finances. Once
   in debt, neither the individual samurai nor the
   shogun himself found it easy to recover.
   It was difficult for individual samurai over-
(30) lords to increase their income because the
   amount of rice that farmers could be made to
   pay in taxes was not unlimited, and since the in-
   come of Japan's central government consisted in
   part of taxes collected by the shogun from his
(35) huge domain, the government too was con-
   strained. Therefore, the Tokugawa shoguns
   began to look to other sources for revenue.
   Cash profits from government-owned mines
   were already on the decline because the most
(40) easily worked deposits of silver and gold had
   been exhausted, although debasement of the
   coinage had compensated for the loss. Opening
   up new farmland was a possibility, but most of
   what was suitable had already been exploited
(45) and further reclamation was technically unfeasi-
   ble. Direct taxation of the samurai themselves
   would be politically dangerous. This left the
   shoguns only commerce as a potential source of
   government income.
(50)   Most of the country's wealth, or so it seemed,
   was finding its way into the hands of city mer-
   chants. It appeared reasonable that they should
   contribute part of that revenue to ease the
   shogun's burden of financing the state. A means
(55) of obtaining such revenue was soon found by
   levying forced ioans, known as goyo-kin;
   although these were not taxes in the strict sense,
   since they were irregular in timing and arbitrary
   in amount, they were high in yield. Unfortunately,
(60) they pushed up prices. Thus, regrettably, the
   Tokugawa shoguns' search for solvency for the
   government made it increasingly difficult for
individual Japanese who lived on fixed stipends
   to make ends meet.

1. The passage is most probably an excerpt from
  (A) an economic history of Japan
  (B) the memoirs of a samurai warrior
  (C) a modern novel about eighteenth-century Japan
  (D) an essay contrasting Japanese feudalism with its
      Western counterpart
  (E) an introduction to a collection of Japanese folktales

2. Which of the following financial situations is most
  analogous to the financial situation in which Japan's
  Tokugawa shoguns found themselves in the eighteenth
  century?
  (A) A small business borrows heavily to invest in new
     equipment, but is able to pay off its debt early
     when it is awarded a lucrative government contract.
  (B) Fire destroys a small business, but insurance covers
     the cost of rebuilding.
  (C) A small business is turned down for a loan at a
     local bank because the owners have no credit
     history?
  (D) A small business has to struggle to meet operating
     expenses when its profits decrease.
  (E) A small business is able to cut back sharply on
     spending through greater commercial efficiency
     and thereby compensate for a loss of revenue.

3. Which of the following best describes the attitude of
   the author toward the samurai discussed in lines
   11-16?
  (A) Warmly approving
  (B) Mildly sympathetic
  (C) Bitterly disappointed
  (D) Harshly disdainful
  (E) Profoundly shocked

4. According to the passage, the major reason for the
  financial problems experienced by Japan's feudal
  overlords in the eighteenth century was that
  (A) spending had outdistanced income
  (B) trade had fallen off
  (C) profits from mining had declined
  (D) the coinage had been sharply debased
  (E) the samurai had concentrated in castle-towns

5.The passage implies that individual samurai did not
  find it easy to recover from debt for which of the
  following reasons?
  (A) Agricultural production had increased.
  (B) Taxes were irregular in timing and arbitrary in
     amount.
  (C) The Japanese government had failed to adjust to
      the needs of a changing economy.
  (D) The domains of samurai overlords were
      becoming smaller and poorer as government
      revenues increased.
  (E) There was a limit to the amount in taxes that
     farmers could be made to pay.

6. The passage suggests that, in eighteenth-century
  Japan, the office of tax collector
  (A) was a source of personal profit to the officeholder
  (B) was regarded with derision by many Japanese
  (C) remained within families
  (D) existed only in castle-towns
  (E) took up most of the officeholder's time

7. Which of the following could best be substituted
  for the word "This " in line 47 without changing the
  meaning of the passage?
  (A) The search of Japan's Tokugawa shoguns for
     solvency
  (B) The importance of commerce in feudal Japan
  (C) The unfairness of the tax structure in eighteenth-
     century Japan
  (D) The difficulty of increasing government income by
      other means
  (E) The difficulty experienced by both individual
     samurai and the shogun himself in extricating
     themselves from debt

8. The passage implies that which of the following was
   the primary reason why the Tokugawa shoguns
   turned to city merchants for help in financing the
   state?
  (A) A series of costly wars had depleted the national
      treasury.
  (B) Most of the country's wealth appeared to be in
     city merchants' hands.
  (C) Japan had suffered a series of economic
      reversals due to natural disasters such as
      floods.
  (D) The merchants were already heavily indebted to
      the shoguns.
  (E) Further reclamation of land would not have been
     economically advantageous.

9. According to the passage, the actions of the Tokugawa
  shoguns in their search for solvency for the government
  were regrettable because those actions
  (A) raised the cost of living by pushing up prices
  (B) resulted in the exhaustion of the most easily
     worked deposits of silver and gold
  (C) were far lower in yield than had originally been
     anticipated
  (D) did not succeed in reducing government spending
  (E) acted as a deterrent to trade


Passage 7
     Between the eighth and eleventh centuries A.D., the
  Byzantine Empire staged an almost unparalleled
  economic and cultural revival, a recovery that is all the
  more striking because it followed a long period of severe
(5) internal decline. By the early eighth century, the empire
  had lost roughly two-thirds of the territory it had
  possessed in the year 600, and its remaining area was
  being raided by Arabs and Bulgarians, who at times
  threatened to take Constantinople and extinguish the
(10) empire altogether. The wealth of the state and its
subjects was greatly diminished, and artistic and literary
production had virtually ceased. By the early eleventh
  century, however, the empire had regained almost half of
  its lost possessions, its new frontiers were secure, and its
(15) influence extended far beyond its borders. The economy
had recovered, the treasury was full, and art and scho-
larship had advanced.
    To consider the Byzantine military, cultural, and
  economic advances as differentiated aspects of a single
(20) phenomenon is reasonable. After all, these three forms
   of progress have gone together in a number of states and
   civilizations. Rome under Augustus and fifth-century
   Athens provide the most obvious examples in antiquity.
Moreover, an examination of the apparent sequential
(25) connections among military, economic, and cultural
forms of progress might help explain the dynamics of
historical change.
  The common explanation of these apparent conn-
ections in the case of Byzantium would run like this:
(30) when the empire had turned back enemy raids on its
   own territory and had begun to raid and conquer enemy
territory, Byzantine resources naturally expanded and
more money became available to patronize art and lit-
   erature. Therefore, Byzantine military achievements led to
(35) economic advances, which in turn led to cultural revival.
     No doubt this hypothetical pattern did apply at times
   during the course of the recovery. Yet it is not clear that
   military advances invariably came first. economic
   advances second, and intellectual advances third. In the
(40) 860's the Byzantine Empire began to recover from Arab
incursions so that by 872 the military balance with the
   Abbasid Caliphate had been permanently altered in the
   empire's favor. The beginning of the empire's economic
   revival, however, can be placed between 810 and 830.
(45) Finally, the Byzantine revival of learning appears to
   have begun even earlier. A number of notable scholars
   and writers appeared by 788 and, by the last decade of
   the eighth century, a cultural revival was in full bloom, a
   revival that lasted until the fall of Constantinople in
(50) 1453.Thus the commonly expected order of military
revival followed by economic and then by cultural
recovery was reversed in Byzantium. In fact, the revival
of Byzantine learning may itself have influenced the
subsequent economic and military expansion.

1. Which of the following best states the central idea of
    the passage?
  (A) The Byzantine Empire was a unique case in
      which the usual order of military and economic
      revival preceding cultural revival was reversed.
  (B) The economic, cultural, and military revival in the
     Byzantine Empire between the eighth and
     eleventh centuries was similar in its order to the
     sequence of revivals in Augustan Rome and fifth-
     century Athens.
  (C) After 810 Byzantine economic recovery spurred a
     military and, later, cultural expansion that lasted
     until 1453.
  (D) The eighth-century revival of Byzantine learning
is an inexplicable phenomenon, and its economic
and military precursors have yet to be discovered.
  (E) The revival of the Byzantine Empire between the
     eighth and eleventh centuries shows cultural
     rebirth preceding economic and military revival,
     the reverse of the commonly accepted order of
     progress.

2. The primary purpose of the second paragraph is
   which of the following?
  (A) To establish the uniqueness of the Byzantine
     revival
  (B) To show that Augustan Rome and fifth-century
     Athens are examples of cultural, economic, and
     military expansion against which all subsequent
     cases must be measured
  (C) To suggest that cultural, economic. and military
     advances have tended to be closely interrelated in
     different societies.
  (D) To argue that, while the revivals of Augustan      
     Rome and fifth-century Athens were similar, they
     are unrelated to other historical examples
  (E) To indicate that, wherever possible, historians
     should seek to make comparisons with the
     earliest chronological examples of revival

3. It can be inferred from the passage that by the
  eleventh century the Byzantine military forces
  (A) had reached their peak and begun to decline
  (B) had eliminated the Bulgarian army
  (C) were comparable in size to the army of Rome
     under Augustus
  (D) were strong enough to withstand the Abbasid
     Caliphate's military forces  
  (E) had achieved control of Byzantine governmental
     structures

4. It can be inferred from the passage that the Byzantine
  Empire sustained significant territorial losses
  (A) in 600
  (B) during the seventh century
  (C) a century after the cultural achievements of the
     Byzantine Empire had been lost
  (D) soon after the revival of Byzantine learning
  (E) in the century after 873

5. In the third paragraph, the author most probably
  provides an explanation of the apparent connections
  among economic, military, and cultural development
  in order to
  (A) suggest that the process of revival in Byzantium
     accords with this model
  (B) set up an order of events that is then shown to be
     not generally applicable to the case of Byzantium
  (C) cast aspersions on traditional historical
     scholarship about Byzantium
  (D) suggest that Byzantium represents a case for
     which no historical precedent exists
  (E) argue that military conquest is the paramount
     element in the growth of empires

6. Which of the following does the author mention as
  crucial evidence concerning the manner in which
      the Byzantine revival began?
  (A) The Byzantine military revival of the 860's led to
    economic and cultural advances.
  (B) The Byzantine cultural revival lasted until 1453.
  (C) The Byzantine economic recovery began in the
      900's.
  (D) The revival of Byzantine learning began toward
      the end of the eighth century.
  (E) By the early eleventh century the Byzantine
     Empire had regained much of its lost territory.

7. According to the author, "The common explanation"
  (line 28) of connections between economic, military,
  and cultural development is
  (A) revolutionary and too new to have been applied
     to the history of the Byzantine Empire
  (B) reasonable, but an antiquated theory of the nature
     of progress
  (C) not applicable to the Byzantine revival as a whole,
     but does perhaps accurately describe limited
     periods during the revival
  (D) equally applicable to the Byzantine case as a
     whole and to the history of military, economic,
     and cultural advances in ancient Greece and
     Rome
  (E) essentially not helpful, because military, economic,
     and cultural advances are part of a single
     phenomenon


Passage 8
   Virtually everything astronomers known about objects
  outside the solar system is based on the detection of
  photons-quanta of electromagnetic radiation. Yet there
  is another form of radiation that permeates the universe:
(5) neutrinos. With (as its name implies) no electric charge,
  and negligible mass, the neutrino interacts with other
  particles so rarely that a neutrino can cross the entire
  universe, even traversing substantial aggregations of
  matter, without being absorbed or even deflected. Neu-
(10) trinos can thus escape from regions of space where light
   and other kinds of electromagnetic radiation are blocked
by matter. Furthermore, neutrinos carry with them
information about the site and circumstances of their
   production: therefore, the detection of cosmic neutrinos
(15) could provide new information about a wide variety of
   cosmic phenomena and about the history of the uni-
verse.
  But how can scientists detect a particle that interacts
so infrequently with other matter? Twenty-five years
(20) passed between Pauli's hypothesis that the neutrino
existed and its actual detection: since then virtually all
   research with neutrinos has been with neutrinos created
artificially in large particle accelerators and studied
under neutrino microscopes. But a neutrino telescope,
(25) capable of detecting cosmic neutrinos, is difficult to co-
nstruct. No apparatus can detect neutrinos unless it is
extremely massive, because great mass is synonymous
   with huge numbers of nucleons (neutrons and protons),
and the more massive the detector, the greater the pro-
(30) bability of one of its nucleon's reacting with a neutrino.   
   In addition, the apparatus must be sufficiently shielded
   from the interfering effects of other particles.
     Fortunately, a group of astrophysicists has proposed
   a means of detecting cosmic neutrinos by harnessing the
(35) mass of the ocean. Named DUMAND, for Deep Under-
   water Muon and Neutrino Detector, the project calls for
   placing an array of light sensors at a depth of five kilo-meters under the ocean surface. The detecting medium is
   the seawater itself: when a neutrino interacts with a
(40)particle in an atom of seawater. the result is a cascade of
   electrically charged particles and a flash of light that can
   be detected by the sensors. The five kilometers of sea-
   water above the sensors will shield them from the interf-
   ering effects of other high-energy particles raining down
(45) through the atmosphere.
  The strongest motivation for the DUMAND project   
is that it will exploit an important source of information
about the universe. The extension of astronomy from
visible light to radio waves to x-rays and gamma rays
(50) never failed to lead to the discovery of unusual objects
   such as radio galaxies, quasars, and pulsars. Each of
   these discoveries came as a surprise. Neutrino astronomy
   will doubtless bring its own share of surprises.

1. Which of the following titles best summarizes the
    passage as a whole?
   (A) At the Threshold of Neutrino Astronomy
   (B) Neutrinos and the History of the Universe
   (C) The Creation and Study of Neutrinos
   (D) The DUMAND System and How It Works
   (E) The Properties of the Neutrino

2. With which of the following statements regarding
neutrino astronomy would the author be most likely
to agree?
  (A) Neutrino astronomy will supersede all present
     forms of astronomy.
  (B) Neutrino astronomy will be abandoned if the
     DUMAND project fails.
  (C) Neutrino astronomy can be expected to lead to
     major breakthroughs in astronomy.
  (D) Neutrino astronomy will disclose phenomena that
     will be more surprising than past discoveries.
  (E) Neutrino astronomy will always be characterized
     by a large time lag between hypothesis and
experimental confirmation.

3. In the last paragraph, the author describes the
development of astronomy in order to
(A) suggest that the potential findings of neutrino
    astronomy can be seen as part of a series of
       astronomical successes
   (B) illustrate the role of surprise in scientific discovery
   (C) demonstrate the effectiveness of the DUMAND
      apparatus in detecting neutrinos
   (D) name some cosmic phenomena that neutrino
      astronomy will illuminate
   (E) contrast the motivation of earlier astronomers with
      that of the astrophysicists working on the
      DUMAND project   

4.According to the passage, one advantage that neutrinos
   have for studies in astronomy is that they
  (A) have been detected for the last twenty-five years
  (B) possess a variable electric charge
  (C) are usually extremely massive  
  (D) carry information about their history with them
  (E) are very similar to other electromagnetic particles

5. According to the passage, the primary use of the
  apparatus mentioned in lines 24-32 would be to
  (A) increase the mass of a neutrino
  (B) interpret the information neutrinos carry with them
  (C) study the internal structure of a neutrino
  (D) see neutrinos in distant regions of space
  (E) detect the presence of cosmic neutrinos


6. The passage states that interactions between neutrinos
  and other matter are
  (A) rare
  (B) artificial
  (C) undetectable
  (D) unpredictable
  (E) hazardous

7. The passage mentions which of the following as a
  reason that neutrinos are hard to detect?
  (A) Their pervasiveness in the universe
  (B) Their ability to escape from different regions of
     space
  (C) Their inability to penetrate dense matter
  (D) The similarity of their structure to that of nucleons
  (E) The infrequency of their interaction with other
     matter

8. According to the passage, the interaction of a neutrino
  with other matter can produce
  (A) particles that are neutral and massive
  (B) a form of radiation that permeates the universe
  (C) inaccurate information about the site and
     circumstances of the neutrino's production
  (D) charged particles and light
  (E) a situation in which light and other forms of
     electromagnetic radiation are blocked

9. According to the passage, one of the methods used to
   establish the properties of neutrinos was
  (A) detection of photons
  (B) observation of the interaction of neutrinos with
     gamma rays
  (C) observation of neutrinos that were artificially
     created
  (D) measurement of neutrinos that interacted with
     particles of seawater
  (E) experiments with electromagnetic radiation


Passage 9
       Most economists in the united States seem
captivated by the spell of the free market. Conse-
quently, nothing seems good or normal that does
not accord with the requirements of the free market.
(5) A price that is determined by the seller or, for
that matter, established by anyone other than the
aggregate of consumers seems pernicious. Accord-
ingly, it requires a major act of will to think of
price-fixing (the determination of prices by the
(10) seller) as both "normal" and having a valuable
economic function. In fact, price-fixing is normal
in all industrialized societies because the indus-
trial system itself provides, as an effortless conse-
quence of its own development, the price-fixing
(15) that it requires. Modern industrial planning
requires and rewards great size. Hence,
a comparatively small number of large firms will
be competing for the same group of consumers.
That each large firm will act with consideration of
(20) its own needs and thus avoid selling its products
for more than its competitors charge is commonly
recognized by advocates of free-market economic
theories. But each large firm will also act with
full consideration of the needs that it has in
(25) common with the other large firms competing for
the same customers. Each large firm will thus
avoid significant price-cutting, because price-
cutting would be prejudicial to the common interest
in a stable demand for products. Most economists
(30) do not see price-fixing when it occurs because
they expect it to be brought about by a number of
explicit agreements among large firms; it is not.
       Moreover, those economists who argue that
   allowing the free market to operate without inter-
(35) ference is the most efficient method of establishing
prices have not considered the economies of non-
socialist countries other than the United states.
These economies employ intentional price-fixing,
usually in an overt fashion. Formal price-fixing
(40) by cartel and informal price-fixing by agreements
covering the members of an industry are common-
place. Were there something peculiarly efficient
about the free market and inefficient about price-
fixing, the countries that have avoided the first
(45) and used the second would have suffered drastically
in their economic development. There is no indica-
tion that they have.
   Socialist industry also works within a frame-
work of controlled prices. In the early 1970's,
(50) the Soviet Union began to give firms and industries
some of the flexibility in adjusting prices that a
more informal evolution has accorded the capitalist
system. Economists in the United States have
hailed the change as a return to the free market.
(55) But Soviet firms are no more subject to prices
established by a free market over which they
exercise little influence than are capitalist firms;
rather, Soviet firms have been given the power to
fix prices.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) refute the theory that the free market plays a
useful role in the development of industrialized
societies
(B) suggest methods by which economists and members  
of the government of the United States can
recognize and combat price-fixing by large firms
(C) show that in industrialized societies price-fixing and
the operation of the free market are not only
compatible but also mutually beneficial
(D) explain the various ways in which industrialized
societies can fix prices in order to stabilize the free   
market
(E) argue that price-fixing, in one form or another, is an
inevitable part of and benefit to the economy of any
industrialized society

2. The passage provides information that would answer
   which of the following questions about price-fixing?
ﾢ￱.What are some of the ways in which prices can be
    fixed?
ﾢ￲. For what products is price-fixing likely to be more
    profitable that the operation of the free market?
ﾢ￳.Is price-fixing more common in socialist
industrialized societies or in nonsocialist
industrialized societies?
  (A) ﾢ￱only
  (B) ﾢ￳ only
  (C) ﾢ￱and ﾢ￲only
  (D) ﾢ￲and ﾢ￳ only
  (E) ﾢ￱,ﾢ￲,and ﾢ￳

3. The author's attitude toward "Most economists in the
  United States"(line 1) can best be described as
  (A) spiteful and envious
  (B) scornful and denunciatory
  (C) critical and condescending
  (D) ambivalent but deferential
  (E) uncertain but interested

4. It can be inferred from the author's argument that a
  price fixed by the seller "seems pernicious"(line 7)
  because
  (A) people do not have confidence in large firms
  (B) people do not expect the government to
     regulate prices
  (C) most economists believe that consumers as a
     group should determine prices
  (D) most economists associate fixed prices with
     communist and socialist economies
  (E) most economists believe that no one group
     should determine prices

5. The suggestion in the passage that price-fixing in
   industrialized societies is normal arises from the
   author's statement that price-fixing is
  (A) a profitable result of economic development
  (B) an inevitable result of the industrial system
  (C) the result of a number of carefully organized
     decisions
(D) a phenomenon common to industrialized and      
    nonindustrialized societies
(E) a phenomenon best achieved cooperatively by
government and industry

6. According to the author, price-fixing in nonsocialist
  countries is often
(A) accidental but productive
(B) illegal but useful
(C) legal and innovative
(D) traditional and rigid
(E) intentional and widespread

7. According to the author, what is the result of the Soviet
  Union's change in economic policy in the 1970's
  (A) Soviet firms show greater profit.
  (B) Soviet firms have less control over the free market.
  (C) Soviet firms are able to adjust to tech nological
     advances.
  (D) Soviet firms have some authority to fix prices.
  (E) Soviet firms are more responsive to the free market.

8. With which of the following statements regarding the
  behavior of large firms in industrialized societies
  would the author be most likely to agree?
  (A) The directors of large firms will continue to
     anticipate the demand for products
  (B) The directors of large firms are less interested in
  achieving a predictable level of profit than in
  achieving a large profit.
  (C) The directors of large firms will strive to reduce the
      costs of their products
  (D) Many directors of large firms believe that the
  government should establish the prices that will be
  charged for products
  (E) Many directors of large firms believe that the price
     charged for products is likely to increase annually.

9. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with
  (A) predicting the consequences of a practice
  (B) criticizing a point of view
  (C) calling attention to recent discoveries
  (D) proposing a topic for research
  (E) summarizing conflicting opinions


Passage 10
      Caffeine, the stimulant in coffee, has been called
   "the most widely used psychoactive substance on Earth ."
   Synder, Daly and Bruns have recently proposed that
   caffeine affects behavior by countering the activity in
(5) the human brain of a naturally occurring chemical called
  adenosine. Adenosine normally depresses neuron firing
  in many areas of the brain. It apparently does this by
  inhibiting the release of neurotransmitters, chemicals
  that carry nerve impulses from one neuron to the next.
(10) Like many other agents that affect neuron firing,
adenosine must first bind to specific receptors on
neuronal membranes. There are at least two classes
of these receptors, which have been designated A1 and
A2. Snyder et al propose that caffeine, which is struc-
(15)  turally similar to adenosine, is able to bind to both types
of receptors, which prevents adenosine from attaching
there and allows the neurons to fire more readily than
they otherwise would.
   For many years, caffeine's effects have been attri-
(20)  buted to its inhibition of the production of phosphodi-
esterase, an enzyme that breaks down the chemical
called cyclic AMP.A number of neurotransmitters exert
their effects by first increasing cyclic AMP concentra-
tions in target neurons. Therefore, prolonged periods at
(25)  the elevated concentrations, as might be brought about
by a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, could lead to a greater
amount of neuron firing and, consequently, to behav-
ioral stimulation. But Snyder et al point out that the
caffeine concentrations needed to inhibit the production
(30)  of phosphodiesterase in the brain are much higher than
those that produce stimulation. Moreover, other com-
pounds that block phosphodiesterase's activity are not
stimulants.
  To buttress their case that caffeine acts instead by pre-
(35)  venting adenosine binding, Snyder et al compared the
stimulatory effects of a series of caffeine derivatives with
their ability to dislodge adenosine from its receptors in
the brains of mice. "In general," they reported, "the ability of the compounds to compete at the receptors
(40) correlates with their ability to stimulate locomotion in
   the mouse; i.e., the higher their capacity to bind at the
receptors, the higher their ability to stimulate locomo-
tion." Theophylline, a close structural relative of caffeine
and the major stimulant in tea, was one of the most
(45) effective compounds in both regards.
     There were some apparent exceptions to the general
correlation observed between adenosine-receptor binding
and stimulation. One of these was a compound called
  3-isobuty1-1-methylxanthine(IBMX), which bound very
(50) well but actually depressed mouse locomotion. Snyder
et al suggest that this is not a major stumbling block to
their hypothesis. The problem is that the compound has
mixed effects in the brain, a not unusual occurrence with
psychoactive drugs. Even caffeine, which is generally
(55) known only for its stimulatory effects, displays this
property, depressing mouse locomotion at very low  
concentrations and stimulating it at higher ones.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
  (A) discuss a plan for investigation of a phenomenon
     that is not yet fully understood
  (B) present two explanations of a phenomenon and
     reconcile the differences between them
  (C) summarize two theories and suggest a third theory
     that overcomes the problems encountered in the first
     two  
  (D) describe an alternative hypothesis and provide
     evidence and arguments that support it
  (E) challenge the validity of a theory by exposing the
     inconsistencies and contradictions in it  

2. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the
   theory proposed by Snyder et al?
  (A) At very low concentrations in the human brain. both
     caffeine and theophylline tend to have depressive
     rather than stimulatory effects on human behavior.
  (B) The ability of caffeine derivatives at very low
     concentrations to dislodge adenosine from its
     receptors in mouse brains correlates well with their
     ability to stimulate mouse locomotion at these low
     concentrations
  (C) The concentration of cyclic AMP in target neurons
     in the human brain that leads to increased neuron
     firing can be produced by several different
     phosphodi esterase inhibitors in addition to caffeine.
  (D) The concentration of caffeine required to dislodge
     adenosine from its receptors in the human brain is
     much greater than the concentration that produces
     behavioral stimulation in humans.
  (E) The concentration of IBMX required to dislodge
     adenosine from its receptors in mouse brains is much
     smaller than the concentration that stimulates
     locomotion in the mouse.

3. According so Snyder et al, caffeine differs from
  adenosine in that caffeine
  (A) stimulates behavior in the mouse and in humans,
     whereas adenosine stimulates behavior in humans
     only
  (B) has mixed effects in the brain, whereas adenosine
     has only a stimulatory effect
  (C) increases cyclic AMP concentrations in target
     neurons, whereas adenosine decreases such
     concentrations
  (D) permits release of neurotransmitters when it is
     bound to adenosine receptors, whereas adenosine
     inhibits such release
  (E) inhibits both neuron firing and the production of
     phosphodiesterase when there is a sufficient
     concentration in the brain, whereas adenosine
     inhibits only neuron firing

4. In response to experimental results concerning IBMX,
  Snyder et al contended that it is not uncommon for
  psychoactive drugs to have
  (A) mixed effects in the brain
  (B) inhibitory effects on enzymes in the brain
  (C) close structural relationships with caffeine
  (D) depressive effects on mouse locomotion
  (E) the ability to dislodge caffeine from receptors
     in the brain

5. The passage suggests that Snyder et al believe that if the
  older theory concerning caffeine's effects were correct,
  which of the following would have to be the case?
ﾢ￱.All neurotransmitters would increase the short-term
    concentration of cyclic AMP in target neurons.
ﾢ￲.Substances other than caffeine that inhibit the
    production of phosphodiesterase would be stimulants.
ﾢ￳.All concentration levels of caffeine that are high
   enough to produce stimulation would also inhibit the
   production of phosphodiesterase.
  (A) ﾢ￱ only
  (B) ﾢ￱ and ﾢ￲ only
  (C) ﾢ￱and ﾢ￳ only
  (D) ﾢ￲ and ﾢ￳ only
  (E) ﾢ￱,ﾢ￲,and ﾢ￳

6. According to Snyder et al, all of the following
  compounds can bind to specific receptors in the brain
  EXCEPT
  (A) IBMX
  (B) caffeine
  (C) adenosine
  (D) theophylline
  (E) phosphodiesterase

7. Snyder et al suggest that caffeine's ability to bind to A1   
  and A2 receptors can be at least partially attributed to
  which of the following?
  (A) The chemical relationship between caffeine and
     phosphodiesterase
  (B) The structural relationship between caffeine and
     adenosine
  (C) The structural similarity between caffeine and
      neurotransmitters
  (D) The ability of caffeine to stimulate behavior
  (E) The natural occurrence of caffeine and adenosine in
     the brain

8. The author quotes Snyder et al in lines 38-43 most
   probably in order to
  (A) reveal some of the assumptions underlying their
     theory
  (B) summarize a major finding of their experiments
  (C) point out that their experiments were limited to the
     mouse
  (D) indicate that their experiments resulted only in
     general correlations
  (E) refute the objections made by supporters of the older
     theory
9. The last paragraph of the passage performs which of the
  following functions?
  (A) Describes a disconfirming experimental result
     and reports the explanation given by Snyder et al in
     an attempt to reconcile this result with their theory.
  (B) Specifies the basis for the correlation observed by
     Snyder et al and presents an explanation in an
     attempt to make the correlation consistent with the
     operation of psychoactive drugs other than caffeine.
  (C) Elaborates the description of the correlation
     observed by Snyder et al and suggests an additional
     explanation in an attempt to make the correlation
     consistent with the older theory.
  (D) Reports inconsistent experimental data and
     describes the method Snyder et al will use to
     reanalyze this data.
  (E) Provides an example of the hypothesis proposed by
     Snyder et al and relates this example to caffeine's
     properties.


Passage 11
     Archaeology as a profession faces two major prob-
lems. First, it is the poorest of the poor. Only paltry
sums are available for excavating and even less is avail-
able for publishing the results and preserving the sites
(5)  once excavated. Yet archaeologists deal with priceless
objects every day. Second, there is the problem of illegal
excavation, resulting in museum-quality pieces being
sold to the highest bidder.
      I would like to make an outrageous suggestion that
(10) would at one stroke provide funds for archaeology and
reduce the amount of illegal digging. I would propose
that scientific archeological expeditions and govern-
mental authorities sell excavated artifacts on the open
market. Such sales would provide substantial funds for
(15) the excavation and preservation of archaeological sites
and the publication of results. At the same time, they
would break the illegal excavator's grip on the market,
thereby decreasing the inducement to engage in illegal
activities.
(20)   You might object that professionals excavate to
acquire knowledge, not money. Moreover, ancient arti-
facts are part of our global cultural heritage, which
should be available for all to appreciate, not sold to the
highest bidder. I agree. Sell nothing that has unique
(25) artistic merit or scientific value. But, you might reply,
everything that comes our of the ground has scientific
value. Here we part company. Theoretically, you may be
correct in claiming that every artifact has potential scien-
tific value. Practically, you are wrong.
(30)   I refer to the thousands of pottery vessels and ancient
lamps that are essentially duplicates of one another. In
one small excavation in Cyprus, archaeologists recently
uncovered 2,000 virtually indistinguishable small jugs in
a single courtyard, Even precious royal seal impressions
(35) known as/melekh handles have been found in abun-
dance---more than 4,000 examples so far.
   The basements of museums are simply not large
enough to store the artifacts that are likely to be discov-
ered in the future. There is not enough money even to
(40) catalogue the finds; as a result, they cannot be found
again and become as inaccessible as if they had never
been discovered. Indeed, with the help of a computer,
sold artifacts could be more accessible than are the
pieces stored in bulging museum basements. Prior to
(45) sale, each could be photographed and the list of the
purchasers could be maintained on the computer A
purchaser could even be required to agree to return the
piece if it should become needed for scientific purposes.
   It would be unrealistic to suggest that illegal digging
(50) would stop if artifacts were sold on the open market.
But the demand for the clandestine product would be
substantially reduced. Who would want an unmarked
pot when another was available whose provenance was
known, and that was dated stratigraphically by the
professional archaeologist who excavated it?

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to propose
  (A) an alternative to museum display of artifacts
  (B) a way to curb illegal digging while benefiting the
     archaeological profession
  (C) a way to distinguish artifacts with scientific value
     from those that have no such value
  (D) the governmental regulation of archaeological sites
  (E) a new system for cataloguing duplicate artifacts

2. The author implies that all of the following statements
  about duplicate artifacts are true EXCEPT:
  (A) A market for such artifacts already exists.
  (B) Such artifacts seldom have scientific value.
  (C) There is likely to be a continuing supply of such
     artifacts.
  (D) Museums are well supplied with examples of such
     artifacts.
  (E) Such artifacts frequently exceed in quality those
     already catalogued in museum collections.

3. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a
  disadvantage of storing artifacts in museum
  basements?
  (A) Museum officials rarely allow scholars access to
     such artifacts.
  (B) Space that could be better used for display is taken
     up for storage.
  (C) Artifacts discovered in one excavation often become
     separated from each other.
  (D) Such artifacts are often damaged by variations in
     temperature and humidity.
  (E) Such artifacts' often remain uncatalogued and thus
     cannot be located once they are put in storage.

4. The author mentions the excavation in Cyprus (lines
  31-34) to emphasize which of the following points?
  (A) Ancient lamps and pottery vessels are less valuable,
     although more rare, than royal seal impressions.
  (B) Artifacts that are very similar to each other present
     cataloguing difficulties to archaeologists.
  (C) Artifacts that are not uniquely valuable, and
     therefore could be sold, are available in large
      quantities.
  (D) Cyprus is the most important location for unearthing
      large quantities of salable artifacts.
  (E) Illegal sales of duplicate artifacts are wide-spread,
     particularly on the island of Cyprus.

5. The author's argument concerning the effect of the
  official sale of duplicate artifacts on illegal excavation
  is based on which of the following assumptions?
  (A) Prospective purchasers would prefer to buy
     authenticated artifacts.
  (B) The price of illegally excavated artifacts would rise.
  (C) Computers could be used to trace sold artifacts.
  (D) Illegal excavators would be forced to sell only
     duplicate artifacts.
  (E) Money gained from selling authenticated artifacts
  could be used to investigate and prosecute illegal  
  excavators.

6. The author anticipates which of the following initial
  objections to the adoption of his proposal?
(A) Museum officials will become unwilling to store
    artifacts.
(B) An oversupply of i artifacts will result and the
    demand for them will fall.
(C) Artifacts that would have been displayed in public
    places will be sold to private collectors.
(D) Illegal excavators will have an even larger supply of
    artifacts for resale.
(E) Counterfeiting of artifacts will become more
    commonplace.

7. The author implies that which of the following would
  occur if duplicate artifacts were sold on the open
  market?
ﾢ￱.Illegal excavation would eventually cease
    completely.
ﾢ￲.Cyprus would become the primary source of
    marketable duplicate artifacts
ﾢ￳.Archaeologists would be able to publish the
results of their excavations more frequently
than they currently do.
(A) ﾢ￱only      
(B) ﾢ￳ only
(C) ﾢ￱and ﾢ￲only   
(D) ﾢ￲ and ﾢ￳ only
(E) ﾢ￱,ﾢ￲,and ﾢ￳


Passage 12
     Federal efforts to aid minority businesses began in the
1960's when the Small Business Administration (SBA)
began making federally guaranteed loans and govern-
ment-sponsored management and technical assistance
(5) available to minority business enterprises. While this
program enabled many minority entrepreneurs to
form new businesses, the results were disappointing,
since managerial inexperience, unfavorable locations,
and capital shortages led to high failure rates. Even 15
(10) years after the program was implemented, minority      
  business receipts were not quite two percent of the national
  economy's total receipts.
      Recently federal policymakers have adopted an
approach intended to accelerate development of the
(15) minority business sector by moving away from directly
aiding small minority enterprises and toward supporting
larger, growth-oriented minority firms through interme-
diary companies. In this approach, large corporations
participate in the development of successful and stable
(20) minority businesses by making use of government-
sponsored venture capital. The capital is used by a
participating company to establish a Minority Enterprise
Small Business Investment Company or MESBIC. The
MESBIC then provides capital and guidance to minority
(25) businesses that have potential to become future suppliers
or customers of the sponsoring company.
   MESBIC's are the result of the belief that providing
established firms with easier access to relevant manage-
ment techniques and more job-specific experience, as
(30) well as substantial amounts of capital, gives those firms
a greater opportunity to develop sound business founda-
tions than does simply making general management
experience and small amounts of capital available.
Further, since potential markets for the minority busi-
(35) nesses already exist through the sponsoring companies,   
   the minority businesses face considerably less risk in
terms of location and market fluctuation. Following
early financial and operating problems, sponsoring
corporations began to capitalize MESBIC's far above
(40) the legal minimum of $500,000 in order to generate
sufficient income and to sustain the quality of manage-
ment needed. MESBIC'c are now emerging as increas-
ingly important financing sources for minority enter-
prises.
(45)  Ironically, MESBIC staffs, which usually consist of
Hispanic and Black professionals, tend to approach
investments in minority firms more pragmatically than
do many MESBIC directors, who are usually senior
managers from sponsoring corporations. The latter
(50) often still think mainly in terms of the "social responsi-
bility approach" and thus seem to prefer deals that are
riskier and less attractive than normal investment criteria
   would warrant. Such differences in viewpoint have pro-
   duced uneasiness among many minority staff members,
(55) who feel that minority entrepreneurs and businesses
should be judged by established business considerations.
These staff members believe their point of view is closer
to the original philosophy of MESBIC's and they are
concerned that, unless a more prudent course is fol-
lowed, MESBIC directors may revert to policies likely to re-create the disappointing results of the original SBA
approach.

1. Which of the following best states the central idea of
   the passage?
  (A) The use of MESBIC's for aiding minority
     entrepreneurs seems to have greater potential for
     success than does the original SBA approach.
  (B) There is a crucial difference in point of view
     between the staff and directors of some MESBIC's.
(C) After initial problems with management and
marketing, minority businesses have begun to
expand at a steady rate.
(D) Minority entrepreneurs wishing to form new
businesses now have several equally successful
federal programs on which to rely.
(E) For the first time since 1960, large corporations are
making significant contributions to the development
of minority businesses.

2. According to the passage, the MESBIC approach
  differs from the SBA approach in that MESBIC's
(A) seek federal contracts to provide markets
    for minority businesses
(B) encourage minority businesses to provide markets
    for other minority businesses
(C) attempt to maintain a specified rate of growth in the
     minority business sector
(D) rely on the participation of large corporations to
    finance minority businesses
(E) select minority businesses on the basis of their
location

3. Which of the following does the author cite to support
   the conclusion that the results of the SBA program
   were disappointing?
(A) The small number of new minority enterprises
     formed as a result of the program
(B) The small number of minority enterprises that took
advantage of the management and technical
assistance offiered under the program
(C) The small percentage of the nation's business
receipts earned by minority enterprises following
the programs, implementation.
(D) The small percentage of recipient minority
    enterprises that were able to repay federally
    guaranteed loans made under the program
(E) The small number of minority enterprises that
    chose to participate in the program
4. Which of the following statements about the SBA
   program can be inferred from the passage?
(A) The maximum term for loans made to recipient
     businesses was 15 years.
(B) Business loans were considered to be more useful to
recipient businesses than was management and
technical assistance.
(C) The anticipated failure rate for recipient businesses
    was significantly lower than the rate that actually
    resulted.
(D) Recipient businesses were encouraged to relocate to  
    areas more favorable for business development.
(E) The capitalization needs of recipient businesses were
assessed and then provided for adequately.

5. Based on information in the passage, which of the
  following would be indicative of the pragmatism of
  MESBIC staff members?
  ﾢ￱.A reluctance to invest in minority businesses
     that show marginal expectations of return on
     the investments
  ﾢ￲. A desire to invest in minority businesses that
     produce goods and services likely to be of use to the
     sponsoring company
  ﾢ￳. A belief that the minority business sector is best
     served by investing primarily in newly established
     businesses
  (A)ﾢ￱only
  (B) ﾢ￳ only
  (C)ﾢ￱and ﾢ￲ only
  (D)ﾢ￲ and ﾢ￳ only
  (E)ﾢ￱,ﾢ￲ and ﾢ￳

6. The author refers to the "financial and operating
  problems"(line 38 ) encountered by MESBIC's
  primarily in order to  
  (A) broaden the scope of the discussion to include the
     legal considerations of funding MESBIC'S through
     sponsoring companies
  (B) call attention to the fact that MESBIC's must
     receive adequate funding in order to function  
     effectively
  (C) show that sponsoring companies were willing to
     invest only $500,000 of government-sponsored
     venture capital in the original MESBIC's
  (D) compare SBA and MESBIC limits on minimum
     funding  
  (E) refute suggestions that MESBIC's have been only
     marginally successful

7. The author's primary objective in the passage is to
  (A) disprove the view that federal efforts to aid minority
     businesses have been ineffective
  (B) explain how federal efforts to aid minority
     businesses have changed since the 1960's
  (C) establish a direct link between the federal efforts
     to aid minority businesses made before the 1960's
     and those made in the 1980's
  (D) analyze the basis for the belief that job-specific
     experience is more useful to minority businesses
     than is general management experience
  (E) argue that the "social responsibility approach" to
     aiding minority businesses is superior to any
     other approach

8. It can be inferred from the passage that the attitude of
  some MESBIC staff members toward the investments
  preferred by some MESBIC directors can best be
  described as
  (A) defensive
  (B) resigned   
  (C) indifferent
  (D) shocked   
  (E) disapproving  

9. The passage provides information that would answer
  which of the following questions?
(A) What was the average annual amount, in dollars, of
     minority business receipts before the SBA strategy
was implemented?   
(B) What locations are considered to be unfavorable for
      minority businesses?
  (C) What is the current success rate for minority
      businesses that are capitalized by MESBIC's?
  (D) How has the use of federal funding for minority
      businesses changed since the 1960's?
  (E) How do minority businesses apply to participate in
     a MESBIC program?


Passage 13
       The majority of successful senior managers do not
closely follow the classical rational model of first clari-
fying goals, assessing the problem, formulating options,
estimating likelihoods of success, making a decision,
(5) and only then taking action to implement the decision.
Rather, in their day-by-day tactical maneuvers, these
senior executives rely on what is vaguely termed "intu-
ition" to mangage a network of interrelated problems
that require them to deal with ambiguity, inconsistency,
(10) novelty, and surprise; and to integrate action into the
    process to thinking.
      Generations of writers on management have recog-
nized that some practicing managers rely heavily on
intuition. In general, however, such writers display a
(15)  poor grasp of what intuition is. Some see it as the oppo-
site of rationality: others view it as an excuse for ca-
priciousness.
       Isenberg's recent research on the cognitive processes
of senior managers reveals that managers' intuition is
(20) neither of these. Rather, senior managers use intuition
in at least five distinct ways. First, they intuitively sense
when a problem exists. Second, managers rely on intu-
ition to perform well-learned behavior patterns rapidly.
This intuition is not arbitrary or irrational, but is based
(25)  on years of painstaking practice and hands-on experi-
ence that build skills. A third function of intuition is to
synthesize isolated bits of data and practice into an inte-
grated picture, often in an "Aha!" experience. Fourth,
    some managers use intuition as a check on the results
(30) of more rational analysis. Most senior executives are
familiar with the formal decision analysis models and
tools, and those who use such systematic methods for
reaching decisions are occasionally leery of solutions
suggested by these methods which run counter to their
(35) sense of the correct course of action. Finally, managers
can use intuition to bypass in-depth analysis and move
rapidly to engender a plausible solution. Used in this
way, intuition is an almost instantaneous cognitive
process in which a manager recognizes familiar patterns.
(40)  One of the implications of the intuitive style of execu-
tive management is that "thinking" is inseparable from
acting. Since managers often "know" what is right
before they can analyze and explain it, they frequently
act first and explain later. Analysis is inextricably tied
(45) to action in thinking/acting cycles, in which managers
develop thoughts about their companies and organiza-
tions not by analyzing a problematic situation and then
acting, but by acting and analyzing in close concert.
   Given the great uncertainty of many of the manage-
(50) ment issues that they face, senior managers often insti-
gate a course of action simply to learn more about an
issue. They then use the results of the action to develop
a more complete understanding of the issue. One impli-
cation of thinking/acting cycles is that action is often
(55) part of defining the problem, not just of implementing
the solution.

1. According to the passage, senior managers use
  intuition in all of the following ways EXCEPT to
  (A) speed up of the creation of a solution to a problem
  (B) identify a problem
  (C) bring together disparate facts
  (D) stipulate clear goals
  (E) evaluate possible solutions to a problem

2. The passage suggests which of the following about the
   "writers on management" mentioned in line 12?
  (A) They have criticized managers for not following
     the classical rational model of decision analysis.
  (B) They have not based their analyses on a sufficiently
     large sample of actual managers.
  (C) They have relied in drawing their conclusions on
     what managers say rather than on what managers do.
  (D) They have misunderstood how managers use
      intuition in making business decisions.
  (E) They have not acknowledged the role of intuition in
      managerial practice.

3. Which of the following best exemplifies "an 'Aha!'
   experience" (line 28) as it is presented in the passage?
  (A) A manager risks taking an action whose outcome is
     unpredictable to discover whether the action changes
     the problem at hand.
  (B) A manager performs well-learned and familiar
     behavior patterns in creative and uncharacteristic
     ways to solve a problem.
  (C) A manager suddenly connects seemingly unrelated
     facts and experiences to create a pattern relevant to
     the problem at hand.
  (D) A manager rapidly identifies the methodology used
     to compile data yielded by systematic analysis.
  (E) A manager swiftly decides which of several sets of
     tactics to implement in order to deal with the conti -
     ngencies suggested by a problem.

4. According to the passage, the classical model of
  decision analysis includes all of the following EXCEPT
  (A) evaluation of a problem
  (B) creation of possible solutions to a problem
  (C) establishment of clear goals to be reached by the
     decision
  (D) action undertaken in order to discover more
     information about a problem
  (E) comparison of the probable effects of different
     solutions to a problem

5. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
  following would most probably be one major difference
  in behavior between Manager X, who uses intuition to
  reach decisions, and Manager Y, who uses only formal
    decision analysis?
(A) Manager X analyzes first and then acts; Manager
    Y does not.
(B) Manager X checks possible solutions to a problem
    by systematic analysis; Manager Y does not
(C) Manager X takes action in order to arrive at the
    solution to a problem; Manager Y does not.
(D) Manager Y draws on years of hands-on experience
in creating a solution to a problem; Manager X
does not.
(E) Manger Y depends on day-to-day tactical
     maneuvering; manager X does not.

6. It can be inferred from the passage that "thinking/acting
  cycles" (line 45 ) in managerial practice would be
  likely to result in which of the following?
  ﾢ￱.A manager analyzes a network of problems and then
     acts on the basis of that analysis.
  ﾢ￲. A manager gathers data by acting and observing the
     effects of action.
  ﾢ￳. A manager takes action without being able to
     articulate reasons for that particular action.
  (A) ﾢ￱ only
  (B) ﾢ￲ only
  (C) ﾢ￱ and ﾢ￲ only
  (D) ﾢ￲ and ﾢ￳ only
  (E) ﾢ￱,ﾢ￲, and ﾢ￳

7. The passage provides support for which of the
   following statements?
  (A) Managers who rely on intuition are more
     successful than those who rely on formal
     decision analysis.
  (B) Managers cannot justify their intuitive decisions.
  (C) Managers' intuition works contrary to their
     rational and analytical skills
  (D) Logical analysis of a problem increases the
     number of possible solutions.
  (E) Intuition enables managers to employ their practical
     experience more efficiently.

8. Which of the following best describes the organization
   of the first paragraph of the passage?
  (A) An assertion is made and a specific supporting
     example is given.
  (B) A conventional model is dismissed and an
     alternative introduced.
  (C) The results of recent research are introduced and
     summarized
  (D) Two opposing points of view are presented and
      evaluated.
  (E) A widely accepted definition is presented and
     qualified.


Passage 14
       Nearly a century ago, biologists found that if they
separated an invertebrate animal embryo into two parts
at an early stage of its life, it would survive and develop
as two normal embryos. This led them to believe that the
(5)  cells in the early embryo are undetermined in the sense
that each cell has the potential to develop in a variety of
different ways. Later biologists found that the situation
was not so simple. It matters in which plane the embryo
is cut. If it is cut in a plane different from the one used
(10)        by the early investigators, it will not form two whole
embryos.
    A debate arose over what exactly was happening.
Which embryo cells are determined, just when do they-
become irreversibly committed to their fates, and what
(15) are the "morphogenetic determinants" that tell a cell
what to become? But the debate could not be resolved
because no one was able to ask the crucial questions
in a form in which they could be pursued productively.
Recent discoveries in molecular biology, however, have
(20)  opened up prospects for a resolution of the debate.
Now investigators think they know at least some of the
molecules that act as morphogenetic determinants in
early development. They have been able o show that,
   in a sense, cell determination begins even before an egg
(25) is fertilized.  
   Studying sea urchins, biologist Paul Gross found
that an unfertilized egg contains substances that func-
tion as morphogenetic determinants. They are located
in the cytoplasm of the egg cell; i.e., in that part of the
(30) cell's protoplasm that lies outside of the nucleus. In the
unfertilized egg, the substances are inactive and are not
distributed homogeneously. When the egg is fertilized,
the substances become active and, presumably, govern
the behavior of the genes they interact with. Since the
(35) substances are unevenly distributed in the egg, when the
fertilized egg divides, the resulting cells are different
from the start and so can be qualitatively different in
their own gene activity.
       The substances that Gross studied are maternal
(40) messenger RNA's --products of certain of the maternal
genes. He and other biologists studying a wide variety
of organisms have found that these particular RNA's
direct, in large part, the synthesis of histones, a class
of proteins that bind to DNA. Once synthesized, the
(45) histones move into the cell nucleus, where section of
DNA wrap around them to form a structure that resem-
bles beads, or knots, on a string. The beads are DNA
segments wrapped around the histones; the string is the
intervening DNA. And it is the structure of these beaded
(50) DNA strings that guides the fate of the cells in which
   they are located.

1. The passage is most probably directed at which kind of
  audience?
  (A) State legislators deciding about funding levels for a
     state-funded biological laboratory
  (B) Scientists specializing in molecular genetics
  (C) Readers of an alumni newsletter published by the
     college that Paul Gross attended
  (D) Marine biologists studying the processes that give
     rise to new species
  (E) Undergraduate biology majors in a molecular
     biology course
2. It can be inferred from the passage that the
   morphogenetic determinants present in the
   early embryo are
  (A) located in the nucleus of the embryo cells
  (B) evenly distributed unless the embryo is not
     developing normally
  (C) inactive until the embryo cells become irreversibly
     committed to their final function
  (D) identical to those that were already present in the
     unfertilized egg
  (E) present in larger quantities than is necessary for the
     development of a single individual

3. The main topic of the passage is
  (A) the early development of embryos of lower marine
     organisms
  (B) the main contribution of modern embryology to
     molecular biology
  (C) the role of molecular biology in disproving older
     theories of embryonic development
  (D) cell determination as an issue in the study of
     embryonic development
  (E) scientific dogma as a factor in the recent debate over
     the value of molecular biology

4. According to the passage, when biologists believed that
   the cells in the early embryo were undetermined, they
   made which of the following mistakes?
  (A) They did not attempt to replicate the original
      experiment of separating an embryo into two parts.
  (B) They did not realize that there was a connection
     between the issue of cell determination and the
     outcome of the separation experiment.
  (C) They assumed that the results of experiments on
     embryos did not depend on the particular animal
     species used for such experiments.
  (D) They assumed that it was crucial to perform the
     separation experiment at an early stage in the
     embryo's life.
  (E) They assumed that different ways of separating an
     embryo into two parts would be equivalent as far
     as the fate of the two parts was concerned.

5. It can be inferred from the passage that the initial
  production of histones after an egg is fertilized takes
  place
  (A) in the cytoplasm
  (B) in the maternal genes
  (C) throughout the protoplasm
  (D) in the beaded portions of the DNA strings
  (E) in certain sections of the cell nucleus

6. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
  following is dependent on the fertilization of an egg?
  (A) Copying of maternal genes to produce maternal
      messenger RNA's
  (B) Sythesis of proteins called histones
  (C) Division of a cell into its nucleus and the cytoplasm
  (D) Determination of the egg cell's potential for division
  (E) Generation of all of a cell's morphogenetic
     determinants

7. According to the passage, the morphogenetic
  determinants present in the unfertilized egg cell are
  which of the following?
  (A) Proteins bound to the nucleus
  (B) Histones
  (C) Maternal messenger RNA's
  (D) Cytoplasm
  (E) Nonbeaded intervening DNA

8. The passage suggests that which of the following plays a
  role in determining whether an embryo separated into
  two parts will two parts will develop as two normal
  embryos?
ﾢ￱.The stage in the embryo's life at which the separation
    occurs
ﾢ￲. The instrument with which the separations is
    accomplished
ﾢ￳. The plane in which the cut is made that separates
    the embryo
  (A) ﾢ￱only
  (B) ﾢ￲ only
  (C) ﾢ￱ and ﾢ￲.only
  (D) ﾢ￱ and ﾢ￳.only
  (E) ﾢ￱,ﾢ￲, and ﾢ￳

9. Which of the following circumstances is most
  comparable to the impasse biologists encountered in
  trying to resolve the debate about cell determination
  (lines 12-18)?
  (A) The problems faced by a literary scholar who wishes
     to use original source materials that are written in
     an unfamiliar foreign language
  (B) The situation of a mathematician who in preparing a
     proof of a theorem for publication detects a
     reasoning error in the proof
  (C) The difficulties of a space engineer who has to
     design equipment to function in an environment in
     which it cannot first be tested
  (D) The predicament of a linguist trying to develop a
     theory of language acquisition when knowledge of
     the structure of language itself is rudimentary at best
  (E) The dilemma confronting a foundation when the
     funds available to it are sufficient to support one of
     two equally deserving scientific projects but not both


Passage 15
   In the two decades between 1910 and 1930, over
ten percent to the Black population of the United States
left the South, where the preponderance of the Black
population had been located, and migrated to northern
(5) states, with the largest number moving, it is claimed,
between 1916 and 1918. It has been frequently assumed,
but not proved, that the majority of the migrants in
what has come to be called the Great Migration came
from rural areas and were motivated by two concurrent
(10) factors: the collapse of the cotton industry following
the boll weevil infestation, which began in 1898, and
increased demand in the North for labor following
the cessation of European immigration caused by the
outbreak of the First World War in 1914. This assump-
(15) tion has led to the conclusion that the migrants' subse-
quent lack of economic mobility in the North is tied to
rural background, a background that implies unfamil-     
iarity with urban living and a lack of industrial skills.
   But the question of who actually left the South has
(20) never been rigorously investigated. Although numerous
   investigations document an exodus from rural southern
areas to southern cities prior to the Great Migration.
no one has considered whether the same migrants then
moved on to northern cities. In 1910 over 600,000
(25) Black workers, or ten percent of the Black work force,
reported themselves to be engaged in "manufacturing
and mechanical pursuits," the federal census category
roughly encompassing the entire industrial sector. The
Great Migration could easily have been made up entirely
(30) of this group and their families. It is perhaps surprising   
to argue that an employed population could be enticed
to move, but an explanation lies in the labor conditions
then prevalent in the South.
About thirty-five percent of the urban Black popu-
(35) lation in the South was engaged in skilled trades. Some
   were from the old artisan class of slavery-blacksmiths.
masons, carpenters-which had had a monopoly of
certain trades, but they were gradually being pushed
out by competition, mechanization, and obsolescence,
(40) The remaining sixty-five percent, more recently urban-
ized, worked in newly developed industries---tobacco.
lumber, coal and iron manufacture, and railroads.
Wages in the South, however, were low, and Black
workers were aware, through labor recruiters and the
(45)Black press, that they could earn more even as unskilled
workers in the North than they could as artisans in the
South. After the boll weevil infestation, urban Black
workers faced competition from the continuing influx
of both Black and White rural workers, who were driven
(50) to undercut the wages formerly paid for industrial jobs.
Thus, a move north would be seen as advantageous
to a group that was already urbanized and steadily
employed, and the easy conclusion tying their subse-
quent economic problems in the North to their rural
background comes into question.

1. The author indicates explicitly that which of the
  following records has been a source of information in
  her investigation?
  (A) United States Immigration Service reports from
     1914 to 1930
  (B) Payrolls of southern manufacturing firms between
     1910 and 1930
  (C) The volume of cotton exports between 1898 and
     1910
  (D) The federal census of 1910
  (E) Advertisements of labor recruiters appearing in
     southern newspapers after 1910

2. In the passage, the author anticipates which of the
   following as a possible objection to her argument?
  (A) It is uncertain how many people actually migrated
     during the Great Migration.
  (B) The eventual economic status of the Great Migration
     migrants has not been adequately traced.
  (C) It is not likely that people with steady jobs would
     have reason to move to another area of the country.
  (D) It is not true that the term "manufacturing and
     mechanical pursuits" actually encompasses the
     entire industrial sector.
  (E) Of the Black workers living in southern cities, only
     those in a small number of trades were threatened by
     obsolescence.

3. According to the passage, which of the following is true
     of wages in southern cities in 1910?
  (A) They were being pushed lower as a result of
      increased competition.
  (B) They had begun t to rise so that southern industry
     could attract rural workers.
  (C) They had increased for skilled workers but
     decreased for unskilled workers.
  (D) They had increased in large southern cities but
decreased in small southern cities.
  (E) They had increased in newly developed industries
     but decreased in the older trades.

4. The author cites each of the following as possible
   influences in a Black worker's decision to migrate
   north in the Great Migration EXCEPT
  (A) wage levels in northern cities
  (B) labor recruiters
  (C) competition from rural workers
  (D) voting rights in northern states
  (E) the Black press

5. It can be inferred from the passage that the "easy
  conclusion" mentioned in line 53 is based on which
  of the following assumptions?
  (A) People who migrate from rural areas to large
     cities usually do so for economic reasons.
  (B) Most people who leave rural areas to take jobs in
     cities return to rural areas as soon as it is financially
     possible for them to do so.
  (C) People with rural backgrounds are less likely to
     succeed economically in cities than are those with
     urban backgrounds.
  (D) Most people who were once skilled workers are
     not willing to work as unskilled workers.
  (E) People who migrate from their birthplaces to other
     regions of country seldom undertake a second
     migration.

6. The primary purpose of the passage is to
  (A) support an alternative to an accepted methodology
  (B) present evidence that resolves a contradiction
  (C) introduce a recently discovered source of
     information
  (D) challenge a widely accepted explanation
  (E) argue that a discarded theory deserves new attention
7. According to information in the passage, which of the
   following is a correct sequence of groups of workers,
   from highest paid to lowest paid, in the period between
   1910 and 1930?
  (A) Artisans in the North; artisans in the South;
     unskilled workers in the North; unskilled workers in
     the South
  (B) Artisans in the North and South; unskilled workers
     in the North; unskilled workers in the South
  (C) Artisans in the North; unskilled workers in the
     North; artisans in the South
  (D) Artisans in the North and South; unskilled urban
     workers in the North; unskilled rural workers in the
     South
  (E) Artisans in the North and South, unskilled rural
     workers in the North and South; unskilled urban
     workers in the North and South

8. The material in the passage would be most relevant to a
  long discussion of which of the following topics?
  (A) The reasons for the subsequent economic difficulties
     of those who participated in the Great Migration
  (B) The effect of migration on the regional economies of
     the United States following the First World War
  (C) The transition from a rural to an urban existence for
     those who migrated in the Great Migration
  (D) The transformation of the agricultural South
     following the boll weevil infestation
  (E) The disappearance of the artisan class in the United
     States as a consequence of mechanization in the
     early twentieth century


Passage 16
   In 1896 a Georgia couple suing for damages in the
accidental death of their two year old was told that since
the child had made no real economic contribution to the
family, there was no liability for damages. In contrast,
(5) less than a century later, in 1979, the parents of a three
year old sued in New York for accidental-death damages
and won an award of $750,000.
  The transformation in social values implicit in juxta-
posing these two incidents is the subject of Viviana
(10) Zelizer's excellent book, Pricing the Priceless Child.
During the nineteenth century, she argues, the concept
of the "useful" child who contributed to the family
economy gave way gradually to the present-day notion
of the "useless" child who, though producing no income
(15) for, and indeed extremely costly to, its parents, is yet
considered emotionally "priceless." Well established
among segments of the middle and upper classes by the
mid-1800's, this new view of childhood spread through-
out society in the iate-nineteenth and early-twentieth
(20) centuries as reformers introduced child-labor regulations
and compulsory education laws predicated in part on the
assumption that a child's emotional value made child
labor taboo.
   For Zelizer the origins of this transformation were
(25) many and complex. The gradual erosion of children's
productive value in a maturing industrial economy,
the decline in birth and death rates, especially in child
mortality, and the development of the companionate
family (a family in which members were united by
(30) explicit bonds of love rather than duty) were all factors
critical in changing the assessment of children's worth.
Yet "expulsion of children from the 'cash nexus,'...
although clearly shaped by profound changes in the
economic, occupational, and family structures," Zelizer
(35) maintains. "was also part of a cultural process 'of sacral-
ization' of children's lives. " Protecting children from the
crass business world became enormously important for
late-nineteenth-century middle-class Americans, she
suggests; this sacralization was a way of resisting what
(40) they perceived as the relentless corruption of human
values by the marketplace.
   In stressing the cultural determinants of a child's
worth. Zelizer takes issue with practitioners of the new
"sociological economics," who have analyzed such tradi-
(45) tionally sociological topics as crime, marriage, educa-
tion, and health solely in terms of their economic deter-
minants. Allowing only a small role for cultural forces
in the form of individual "preferences," these sociologists
tend to view all human behavior as directed primarily by
(50) the principle of maximizing economic gain. Zelizer is
highly critical of this approach, and emphasizes instead
the opposite phenomenon: the power of social values to
transform price. As children became more valuable in
emotional terms, she argues, their "exchange" or " sur-
(55) render" value on the market, that is, the conversion of
their intangible worth into cash terms, became much
greater.

1. It can be inferred from the passage that accidental-death
  damage awards in America during the nineteenth
  century tended to be based principally on the
  (A) earnings of the person at time of death
  (B) wealth of the party causing the death
  (C) degree of culpability of the party causing the death
  (D) amount of money that had been spent on the person
     killed
  (E) amount of suffering endured by the family of the
     person killed

2. It can be inferred from the passage that in the early
   1800's children were generally regarded by their
   families as individuals who
  (A) needed enormous amounts of security and affection
  (B) required constant supervision while working
  (C) were important to the economic well-being of a
     family
  (D) were unsuited to spending long hours in school
  (E) were financial burdens assumed for the good of
     society

3. which of the following alternative explanations of the
   change in the cash value of children would be most
   likely to be put forward by sociological economists as
   they are described in the passage?
  (A) The cash value of children rose during the
     nineteenth century because parents began to increase
     their emotional investment in the upbringing of
     their children.
  (B) The cash value of children rose during the
     nineteenth century because their expected earnings
     over the course of a lifetime increased greatly.
  (C) The cash value of children rose during the
     nineteenth century because the spread of
     humanitarian ideals resulted in a wholesale
     reappraisal of the worth of an individual
  (D) The cash value of children rose during the
     nineteenth century because compulsory education
     laws reduced the supply, and thus raised the costs,
     of available child labor.
  (E) The cash value of children rose during the
     nineteenth century because of changes in the way
     negligence law assessed damages in accidental-
     death cases.

4. The primary purpose of the passage is to
  (A) review the literature in a new academic subfield
  (B) present the central thesis of a recent book
  (C) contrast two approaches to analyzing historical
     change
  (D) refute a traditional explanation of a social
     phenomenon
  (E) encourage further work on a neglected historical
     topic

5. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
  following statements was true of American families over
  the course of the nineteenth century?
  (A) The average size of families grew considerably
  (B) The percentage of families involved in industrial
     work declined dramatically.
  (C) Family members became more emotionally bonded
     to one another.
  (D) Family members spent an increasing amount of time
     working with each other.

  (E) Family members became more economically
     dependent on each other.

6. Zelizer refers to all of the following as important
  influences in changing the assessment of children's
  worth EXCEPT changes in
  (A) the mortality rate
  (B) the nature of industry
  (C) the nature of the family
  (D) attitudes toward reform movements
  (E) attitudes toward the marketplace

7.Which of the following would be most consistent with
  the practices of sociological economics as these
  practices are described in the passage?
  (A) Arguing that most8icare professionals enter
     the field because they believe it to be the most
     socially useful of any occupation
  (B) Arguing that most college students choose majors
     that they believe will lead to the most highly paid
     jobs available to them
  (C) Arguing that most decisions about marriage and
     divorce are based on rational assessments of the
     likelihood that each partner will remain committed
     to the relationship
  (D) Analyzing changes in the number of people enrolled
     in colleges and universities as a function of changes
     in the economic health of these institutions  
  (E) Analyzing changes in the ages at which people get
     married as a function of a change in the average
     number of years that young people have lived away
     from their parents


Passage 17
   Prior to 1975, union efforts to organize public-sector
clerical workers, most of whom are women, were some-
what limited. The factors favoring unionization drives
seem to have been either the presence of large numbers
(5) of workers, as in New York City, to make it worth the
effort, or the concentration of small numbers in one or
two locations, such as a hospital, to make it relatively
easy, Receptivity to unionization on the workers, part
was also a consideration, but when there were large
(10) numbers involved or the clerical workers were the only
unorganized group in a jurisdiction, the multioccupa-
tional unions would often try to organize them regard-
less of the workers' initial receptivity. The strategic
reasoning was based, first, on the concern that politi-
(15) cians and administrators might play off unionized
against nonunionized workers, and, second, on the
conviction that a fully unionized public work force
meant power, both at the bargaining table and in the
legislature. In localities where clerical workers were few
(20) in number, were scattered in several workplaces, and
expressed no interest in being organized, unions more
often than not ignored them in the pre-1975 period.
      But since the mid-1970's, a different strategy has
emerged. In 1977, 34 percent of government clerical
(25) workers were represented by a labor organization,
compared with 46 percent of government professionals,
44 percent of government blue-collar workers, and
41 percent of government service workers, Since then,
however, the biggest increases in public-sector unioniza-
(30) tion have been among clerical workers. Between 1977
and 1980, the number of unionized government workers
in blue-collar and service occupations increased only
about 1.5 percent, while in the white-collar occupations
the increase was 20 percent and among clerical workers
(35) in particular, the increase was 22 percent.
       What accounts for this upsurge in unionization
among clerical workers? First, more women have entered
the work force in the past few years, and more of them
plan to remain working until retirement age. Conse-
(40) quently, they are probably more concerned than their
predecessors were about job security and economic bene-
fits. Also, the women's movement has succeeded in legit-
imizing the economic and political activism of women on
their own behalf, thereby producing a more positive atti-
(45) tude toward unions. The absence of any comparable
increase in unionization among private-sector clerical
workers, however, identifies the primary catalyst-the
structural change in the multioccupational public-sector
unions themselves. Over the past twenty years, the occu-
(50) pational distribution in these unions has been steadily
shifting from predominantly blue-collar to predomi-
nantly white-collar. Because there are far more women
in white-collar jobs, an increase in the proportion of
female members has accompanied the occupational shift
(55) and has altered union policy-making in favor of orga-
nizing women and addressing women's issues.

1. According to the passage, the public-sector workers who
   were most likely to belong to unions in 1977 were
  (A) professionals
  (B) managers
  (C) clerical workers
  (D) service workers
  (E) blue-collar workers

2. The author cites union efforts to achieve a fully
  unionized work force (line 13-19) in order to account
  for why
  (A) politicians might try to oppose public-sector union
     organizing
  (B) public-sector unions have recently focused on
     organizing women
  (C) early organizing efforts often focused on areas
     where there were large numbers of workers
  (D) union efforts with regard to public-sector clerical
     workers increased dramatically after 1975
  (E) unions sometimes tried to organize workers
     regardless of the workers' initial interest in
     unionization

  3. The author's claim that, since the mid-1970's, a new
strategy has emerged in the unionization of public-
sector clerical workers (line 23 ) would be
strengthened if the author
  (A) described more fully the attitudes of clerical workers
     toward labor unions
  (B) compared the organizing strategies employed by
     private-sector unions with those of public-sector
     unions
  (C) explained why politicians and administrators
     sometimes oppose unionization of clerical workers
  (D) indicated that the number of unionized public-sector
     clerical workers was increasing even before the mid-
     1970's
  (E) showed that the factors that favored unionization
     drives among these workers prior to 1975 have
     decreased in importance

4. According to the passage, in the period prior to 1975,
  each of the following considerations helped determine
  whether a union would attempt to organize a certain  
  group of clerical workers EXCEPT
  (A) the number of clerical workers in that group
  (B) the number of women among the clerical workers
     in that group
  (C) whether the clerical workers in that area were
     concentrated in one workplace or scattered over
     several workplaces
  (D) the degree to which the clerical workers in that
     group were interested in unionization
  (E) whether all the other workers in the same juris-
     diction as that group of clerical workers were
     unionized

5. The author states that which of the following is a
  consequence of the women's movement of recent
  years?     
  (A) An increase in the number of women entering the
     work force
  (B) A structural change in multioccupational public-
     sector unions
  (C) A more positive attitude on the part of women
     toward unions
  (D) An increase in the proportion of clerical workers
     that are women
  (E) An increase in the number of women in
     administrative positions

6. The main concern of the passage is to
  (A) advocate particular strategies for future efforts to
     organize certain workers into labor unions
  (B) explain differences in the unionized proportions of
     various groups of public-sector workers
  (C) evaluate the effectiveness of certain kinds of labor
     unions that represent public-sector workers
  (D) analyzed and explain an increase in unionization
     among a certain category of workers
  (E) describe and distinguish strategies appropriate to
     organizing different categories of workers

7. The author implies that if the increase in the number of
  women in the work force and the impact of the women's  
  movement were the main causes of the rise in
  unionization of public-sector clerical workers, then
  (A) more women would hold administrative positions in
     unions
  (B) more women who hold political offices would have
     positive attitudes toward labor unions
  (C) there would be an equivalent rise in unionization of
     private-sector clerical workers
  (D) unions would have shown more interest than they  
     have in organizing women
  (E) the increase in the number of unionized public-
     sector clerical workers would have been greater than
     it has been

8. The author suggests that it would be disadvantageous to
  a union if
  (A) many workers in the locality were not unionized
  (B) the union contributed to political campaigns
  (C) the union included only public-sector workers
  (D) the union included workers from several
     jurisdictions
  (E) the union included members from only a few
     occupations

9. The author implies that, in comparison with working
  women today, women working in the years prior to the
  mid-1970's showed a greater tendency to
  (A) prefer smaller workplaces
  (B) express a positive attitude toward labor unions
  (C) maximize job security and economic benefits
  (D) side with administrators in labor disputes
  (E) quit working prior of retirement age


Passage 18
Milankovitch proposed in the early twentieth century
that the ice ages were caused by variations in the Earth's
orbit around the Sun. For sometime this theory was
considered untestable, largely because there was no suffi-
(5) ciently precise chronology of the ice ages with which
   the orbital variations could be matched.
   To establish such a chronology it is necessary to
determine the relative amounts of land ice that existed
at various times in the Earth's past. A recent discovery
(10) makes such a determination possible: relative land-ice
volume for a given period can be deduced from the ratio
of two oxygen isotopes, 16 and 18, found in ocean sedi-
ments. Almost all the oxygen in water is oxygen 16, but
a few molecules out of every thousand incorporate the
(15) heavier isotope 18. When an ice age begins, the conti-
nental ice sheets grow, steadily reducing the amount of
water evaporated from the ocean that will eventually
return to it. Because heavier isotopes tend to be left
behid when water evaporates from the ocean surfaces,
(20) the remaining ocean water becomes progressively
enriched in oxygen 18. The degree of enrichment can
be determined by analyzing ocean sediments of the
period, because these sediments are composed of calcium
carbonate shells of marine organisms, shells that were
(25) constructed with oxygen atoms drawn from the sur-
rounding ocean. The higher the ratio of oxygen 18 to oxygen 16 in a sedimentary specimen, the more land ice
there was when the sediment was laid down.
      As an indicator of shifts in the Earth's climate, the
(30) isotope record has two advantages. First, it is a global
record: there is remarkably little variation in isotope
ratios in sedimentary specimens taken from different
continental locations. Second, it is a more continuous
record than that taken from rocks on land. Because of
(35) these advantages, sedimentary evidence can be dated
with sufficient accuracy by radiometric methods to
establish a precise chronology of the ice ages. The dated
isotope record shows that the fluctuations in global ice volume over the past several hundred thousand years
(40) have a pattern: an ice age occurs roughly once every
100,000 years. These data have established a strong
connection between variations in the Earth's orbit and
the periodicity of the ice ages.
    However, it is important to note that other factors,
(45) such as volcanic particulates or variations in the amount
of sunlight received by the Earth, could potentially have
affected the climate. The advantage of the Milankovitch
theory is that it is testable: changes in the Earth's orbit
can be calculated and dated by applying Newton's laws
(50) of gravity to progressively earlier configurations of the
   bodies in the solar system. Yet the lack of information
about other possible factors affecting global climate does
not make them unimportant.

1. In the passage, the author is primarily interested in
   (A) suggesting an alternative to an outdated research
      method
   (B) introducing a new research method that calls an
      accepted theory into question
   (C) emphasizing the instability of data gathered from
      the application of a new scientific method
   (D) presenting a theory and describing a new method
       to test that theory
   (E) initiating a debate about a widely accepted theory

  2. The author of the passage would be most likely to
agree with which of the following statements about
the Milankovitch theory?
   (A) It is the only possible explanation for the ice ages.
   (B) It is too limited to provide a plausible explanation
     for the ice ages, despite recent research findings.
  (C) It cannot be tested and confirmed until further
      research on volcanic activity is done.
   (D) It is one plausible explanation, though not the
  only one, for the ice ages.
  (E) It is not a plausible explanation for the ice ages,
     although it has opened up promising possibilities
     for future research.

3. It can be inferred from the passage that the isotope
  record taken from ocean sediments would be less useful
  to researchers if which of the following were true?
  (A) It indicated that lighter isotopes of oxygen
     predominated at certain times.
  (B) It had far more gaps in its sequence than the record
     taken from rocks on land.
  (C) It indicated that climate shifts did not occur every
     100,000 years.
  (D) It indicated that the ratios of oxygen 16 and oxygen
     18 in ocean water were not consistent with those
     found in fresh water.
  (E) It stretched back for only a million years.

4. According to the passage, which of the following is true  
  of the ratios of oxygen isotopes in ocean sediments?
  (A) They indicate that sediments found during an ice
     age contain more calcium carbonate than sediments
     formed at other times.
  (B) They are less reliable than the evidence from rocks
     on land in determining the volume of land ice.
  (C) They can be used to deduce the relative volume of
     land ice that was present when the sediment was
     laid down.
  (D) They are more unpredictable during an ice age
      than in other climatic conditions.
  (E) They can be used to determine atmospheric
     conditions at various times in the past.

5. It can be inferred from the passage that precipitation
  formed from evaporated ocean water has
  (A) the same isotopic ratio as ocean water
  (B) less oxygen 18 than does ocean water
  (C) less oxygen 18 than has the ice contained in
     continental ice sheets
  (D) a different isotopic composition than has
     precipitation formed from water on land
  (E) more oxygen 16 than has precipitation formed from
     fresh water

6. According to the passage, which of the following is (are)
  true of the ice ages?
  ﾢ￱. The last ice age occurred about 25,000 years ago.
  ﾢ￲. Ice ages have lasted about 10,000 years for at least
     the last several hundred thousand years.
  ﾢ￳. Ice ages have occurred about every 100,000 years
     for at least the last several hundred thousand years.
  (A) ﾢ￱ only
  (B) ﾢ￲ only
  (C) ﾢ￳ only
  (D) ﾢ￱and only
  (E) ﾢ￱,ﾢ￲ and ﾢ￳

7. It can be inferred from the passage that calcium
  carbonate shells
  (A) are not as susceptible to deterioration as rocks
  (B) are less common in sediments formed during an ice
     age
  (C) are found only in areas that were once covered by
      land ice
  (D) contain radioactive material that can be used to
     determine a sediment's isotopic composition
  (E) reflect the isotopic composition of the water at the  
   time the shells were formed

8. The purpose of the last paragraph of the passage is to
  (A) offer a note of caution
  (B) introduce new evidence
  (C) present two recent discoveries
  (D) summarize material in the preceding paragraphs
  (E) offer two explanations for a phenomenon

9. According to the passage, one advantage of studying the
      isotope record of ocean sediments is that it
  (A) corresponds with the record of ice volume taken
     from rocks on land
  (B) shows little variation in isotope ratios when samples
     are taken from different continental locations
  (C) corresponds with predictions already made by
     climatologists and experts in other fields
  (D) confirms the record of ice volume initially
     established by analyzing variations in volcanic
     emissions
  (E) provides data that can be used to substantiate
records concerning variations in the amount
of sunlight received by the Earth


Passage 19
      In contrast to traditional analyses of minority busi-
ness, the sociological analysis contends that minority
business ownership is a group-level phenomenon, in that
it is largely dependent upon social-group resources for
(5) its development. Specifically, this analysis indicates that
support networks play a critical role in starting and
maintaining minority business enterprises by providing
owners with a range of assistance, from the informal
encouragement of family members and friends to
(10) dependable sources of labor and clientele from the
owner's ethnic group. Such self-help networks, which
encourage and support ethnic minority entrepreneurs,
consist of "primary" institutions, those closest to the
individual in shaping his or her behavior and beliefs.
(15) They are characterized by the face-to-face association
and cooperation of persons united by ties of mutual
concern. They form an intermediate social level between
the individual and larger "secondary " institutions based
on impersonal relationships. Primary institutions
(20) comprising the support network include kinship, peer,
and neighborhood or community subgroups.
      A major function of self-help networks is financial
support. Most scholars agree that minority business
owners have depended primarily on family funds and
(25) ethnic community resources for investment capital .
Personal savings have been accumulated, often through
frugal living habits that require sacrifices by the entire
family and are thus a product of long-term family finan-
cial behavior. Additional loans and gifts from relatives.
(30) forthcoming because of group obligation rather than
narrow investment calculation, have supplemented
personal savings. Individual entrepreneurs do not neces-
sarily rely on their kin because they cannot obtain finan-
cial backing from commercial resources. They may actu-
(35) ally avoid banks because they assume that commercial   
   institutions either cannot comprehend the special needs
of minority enterprise or charge unreasonably high
interest rates.
      Within the larger ethnic community, rotating credit
(40) associations have been used to raise capital. These asso-
ciations are informal clubs of friends and other trusted
members of the ethnic group who make regular contri-
butions to a fund that is given to each contributor in
rotation. One author estimates that 40 percent of New
(45)York Chinatown firms established during 1900-1950
utilized such associations as their initial source of
capital. However, recent immigrants and third or fourth
generations of older groups now employ rotating credit
associations only occasionally to raise investment funds.
(50) Some groups, like Black Americans, found other means
of financial support for their entrepreneurial efforts.The
first Black-operated banks were created in the late nine-
teenth century as depositories for dues collected from
fraternal or lodge groups, which themselves had sprung
(55) from Black churches. Black banks made limited invest-
ments in other Black enterprises. Irish immigrants in
American cities organized many building and loan asso-
ciations to provide capital for home construction and
purchase. They. in turn, provided work for many Irish
(60) home-building contractor firms. Other ethnic and
minority groups followed similar practices in founding
ethnic-directed financial institutions.
1. Based on the information in the passage. it would be
  LEAST likely for which of the following persons to be
  part of a self-help network?
  (A) The entrepreneur's childhood friend
  (B) The entrepreneur's aunt
  (C) The entrepreneur's religious leader
  (D) The entrepreneur's neighbor
  (E) The entrepreneur's banker

2. Which of the following illustrates the working of a self-
  help support network, as such networks are described
  in the passage?
  (A) A public high school offers courses in book-keeping
     and accounting as part of its open-enrollment adult
     education program.
  (B) The local government in a small city sets up a
     program that helps teen-agers find summer jobs.
  (C) A major commercial bank offers low-interest loans
     to experienced individuals who hope to establish
     their own businesses.
  (D) A neighborhood-based fraternal organization
     develops a program of on-the-job training for its
     members and their friends.
  (E) A community college offers country residents
     training programs that can lead to certification in a
     variety of technical trades.

3. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage
  about rotating credit associations?
  (A) They were developed exclusively by Chinese
     immigrants.
  (B) They accounted for a significant portion of the
     investment capital used by Chinese immigrants in
     New York in the early twentieth century.
  (C) Third-generation members of an immigrant group
     who started businesses in the 1920's would have
     been unlikely to rely on them.
  (D) They were frequently joint endeavors by members
     of two or three different ethnic groups.
  (E) Recent immigrants still frequently turn to rotating
     credit associations instead of banks for investment
     capital.

4. The passage best supports which of the following
  statements?
  (A) A minority entrepreneur who had no assistance from
     family members would not be able to start a
     business.
  (B) Self-help networks have been effective in helping
     entrepreneurs primarily in the last 50 years.
  (C) Minority groups have developed a range of
     alternatives to standard financing of business
     ventures.
  (D) The financial institutions founded by various ethnic
     groups owe their success to their unique formal
     organization.
  (E) Successful minority-owned businesses succeed
     primarily because of the personal strengths of their
     founders.

5. Which of the following best describes the organization
  of the second paragraph?
  (A) An argument is delineated, followed by a
     counterargument.
  (B) An assertion is made and several examples are
     provided to illustrate it.
  (C) A situation is described and its historical
     background is then outlined.
  (D) An example of a phenomenon is given and is then
     used as a basis for general conclusions.
  (E) A group of parallel incidents is described and the
     distinctions among the incidents are then clarified.

6. According to the passage, once a minority-owned
  business is established, self-help networks contribute
  which of the following to that business?
  (A) Information regarding possible expansion of the
     business into nearby communities
  (B) Encouragement of a business climate that is nearly
     free of direct competition
  (C) Opportunities for the business owner to reinvest
     profits in other minority-owned businesses
  (D) Contact with people who are likely to be customers
      of the new business
  (E) Contact with minority entrepreneurs who are
     members of other ethnic groups

7. It can be inferred from the passage that traditional
  analyses of minority business would be LEAST likely
  to do which of the following?
  (A) Examine businesses primarily in their social
     contexts
  (B) Focus on current, rather than historical, examples
     of business enterprises
  (C) Stress common experiences of individual
     entrepreneurs in starting businesses
  (D) Focus on the maintenance of businesses, rather
     than means of starting them
  (E) Focus on the role of individual entrepreneurs in
     starting a business

8. Which of the following can be inferred from the
     passage about the Irish building and loan
     associations mentioned in the last paragraph?
  (A) They were started by third-or fourth-generation
      immigrants.
  (B) They originated as offshoots of church-related
     groups.
  (C) They frequently helped Irish entrepreneurs to
     finance business not connected with construction.
  (D) They contributed to the employment of many Irish
     construction workers.
  (E) They provided assistance for construction businesses
     owned by members of other ethnic groups.


Passage 20
Species interdependence in nature confers many
benefits on the species involved, but it can also become a
point of weakness when one species involved in the rela-
tionship is affected by a catastrophe. Thus, flowering
(5) plant species dependent on insect pollination, as opposed
to self-pollination or wind pollination, could be endan-
gered when the population of insect-pollinators is depleted
by the use of pesticides.
   In the forests of New Brunswick, for example,
(10) various pesticides have been sprayed in the past 25 years
in efforts to control the spruce budworm, an economi-
cally significant pest. Scientists have now investigated
the effects of the spraying of Matacil, one of the anti-
budworm agents that is least toxic to insect-pollinators.
(15) They studied Matacil's effects on insect mortality in a
wide variety of wild insect species and on plant fecun-
dity, expressed as the percentage of the total flowers on
an individual plant that actually developed fruit and
bore seeds. They found that the most pronounced
(20) mortality after the spraying of Matacil occurred among
the smaller bees and one family of flies, insects that were
all important pollinators of numerous species of plants
growing beneath the tree canopy of forests. The fecun-
dity of plants in one common indigenous species, the
(25) red-osier dogwood, was significantly reduced in the
sprayed areas as compared to that of plants in control
plots where Matacil was not sprayed. This species is
highly dependent on the insect-pollinators most vulner-
able to Matacil. The creeping dogwood, a species similar
(30) to the red-osier dogwood, but which is pollinated by
large bees, such as bumblebees, showed no significant
decline in fecundity. Since large bees are not affected by
the spraying of Matacil. these results and weight to the
argument that spraying where the pollinators are sensi-
(35) tive to the pesticide used decreases plant fecundity.
     The question of whether the decrease in plant fecun-
dity caused by the spraying of pesticides actually causes
a decline in the overall population of flowering plant
species still remains unanswered. Plant species dependent
(40) solely on seeds for survival or dispersal are obviously
more vulnerable to any decrease in plant fecundity that
occurs, whatever its cause. If, on the other hand, vegeta-
tive growth and dispersal (by means of shoots or runners)
are available as alternative reproductive strategies for a
(45) species, then decreases in plant fecundity may be of little
consequence. The fecundity effects described here are
likely to have the most profound impact on plant species
with all four of the following characteristics: a short life
span, a narrow geographic range, an incapacity for vege-
(50) tative propagation, and a dependence on a small number
of insect-pollinator species. Perhaps we should give special
attention to the conservation of such plant species since
they lack key factors in their defenses against the envi-
ronmental disruption caused by pesticide use.

1. Which of the following best summarizes the main point
  of the passage?
  (A) Species interdependence is a point of weakness for  
     some plants, but is generally beneficial to insects
     involved in pollination.
  (B) Efforts to control the spruce budworm have had
     deleterious effects on the red-osier dogwood.
  (C) The used of pesticides may be endangering certain
     plant species dependent on insects for pollination.
  (D) The spraying of pesticides can reduce the fecundity
     of a plant species, but probably does not affect its
     overall population stability.
  (E) Plant species lacking key factors in their defenses  
     against human environmental disruption will
     probably become extinct.

2. According to the author, a flowering plant species whose
  fecundity has declined due to pesticide spraying may
  not experience an overall population decline if the plant
  species can do which of the following?
  (A) Reproduce itself by means of shoots and runners.
  (B) Survive to the end of the growing season.
  (C) Survive in harsh climates.
  (D) Respond to the fecundity decline by producing more
     flowers.
  (E) Attract large insects as pollinators

3. The passage suggests that the lack of an observed
   decline in the fecundity of the creeping dogwood
   strengthens the researchers conclusions regarding
   pesticide use because the
  (A) creeping dogwood its a species that does not
     resemble other forest plants
  (B) creeping dogwood is a species pollinated by a
     broader range of insect species than are most
     dogwood species
  (C) creeping dogwood grows primarily in regions that
     were not sprayed with pesticide, and so served as a
     control for the experiment
  (D) creeping dogwood is similar to the red-osier
     dogwood, but its insect pollinators are known to be
      insensitive to the pesticide used in the study
  (E) geographical range of the creeping dogwood is
     similar to that of the red-osier dogwood, but the
     latter species relies less on seeds for reproduction

4. The passage suggests that which of the following is true
  of the forest regions in New Brunswick sprayed with
  most anti-budworm pesticides other than Matacil?
  (A) The fecundity of some flowering plants in those
     regions may have decreased to an even greater
     degree than in the regions where Matacil is used.
  (B) Insect mortality in those regions occurs mostly
     among the larger species of insects, such as
     bumblebees.
  (C) The number of seeds produced by common plant
     species in those regions is probably comparable to
     the number produced where Matacil is sprayed.
  (D) Many more plant species have become extinct in
     those regions than in the regions where Matacil is
     used.
  (E) The spruce budworm is under better control in those
     regions than in the regions where Matacil is sprayed.

5. It can be inferred that which of the following is true of
  plant fecundity as it is defined in the passage?
  (A) A plant's fecundity decreases as the percentage of
     unpollinated flowers on the plant increases
  (B) A plant's fecundity decreases as the number of
     flowers produced by the plant decreases.
  (C) A plant's fecundity increases as the number of
     flowers produced by the plant increases.
  (D) A plant's fecundity is usually low if the plant relies
     on a small number of insect species for pollination.
  (E) A plant's fecundity is high if the plant can reproduce
     quickly by means of vegetative growth as well as by
     the production of seeds.

6. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
  following plant species would be LEAST likely to
  experience a decrease in fecundity as a result of the
  spraying of a pesticide not directly toxic to plants?
  (A) A flowering tree pollinated by only a few insect
     species
  (B) A kind of insect-pollinated vine producing few
     flowers
  (C) A wind-pollinated flowering tree that is short-lived
  (D) A flowering shrub pollinated by a large number of
     insect species
  (E) A type of wildflower typically pollinated by larger
     insects
7. Which of the following assumptions most probably
   underlies the author's tentative recommendation in
   lines 51-54?
  (A) Human activities that result in environmental
     disruption should be abandoned.
  (B) The use of pesticides is likely to continue into the
     future.
  (C) It is economically beneficial to preserve endan-
     gered plant species.
  (D) Preventing the endangerment of a species is less
     costly than trying to save an already endangered
     one.
  (E) Conservation efforts aimed at preserving a few well-
     chosen species are more cost-effective than are
     broader-based efforts to improve the environment.


Passage 21
Bernard Bailyn has recently reinterpreted the early
history of the United States by applying new social
research findings on the experiences of European
migrants. In his reinterpretation, migration becomes the
(5)  organizing principle for rewriting the history of prein-
dustrial North America. His approach rests on four
separate propositions.
      The first of these asserts that residents of early
modern England moved regularly about their coun-
(10) tryside; migrating to the New World was simply a
"natural spillover." Although at first the colonies held
little positive attraction for the English---they would
rather have stayed home-by the eighteenth century
people increasingly migrated to America because they
(15) regarded it as the land of opportunity.tg6y Secondly, Bailyn
holds that, contrary to the notion that used to flourish in
America history textbooks, there was never a typical
New World community. For example, the economic and demographic character of early New England towns
(20) varied considerably.
Bailyn's third proposition suggests two general
patterns prevailing among the many thousands of
migrants: one group came as indentured servants,
another came to acquire land. Surprisingly, Bailyn
(25) suggests that those who recruited indentured servants
were the driving forces of transatlantic migration. These
colonial entrepreneurs helped determine the social char-
acter of people who came to preindustrial North America.
At first, thousands of unskilled laborers were recruited;
(30) by the 1730's, however, American employers demanded
skilled artisans.
   Finally, Bailyn argues that the colonies were a half-
civilized hinterland of the European culture system. He
is undoubtedly correct to insist that the colonies were
(35) part of an Anglo-American empire. But to divide the
empire into English core and colonial periphery, as
Bailyn does, devalues the achievements of colonial
culture. It is true, as Bailyn claims, that high culture in
the colonies never matched that in England. But what
(40) of seventeenth-century New England, where the settlers
created effective laws, built a distinguished university,
and published books? Bailyn might respond that New
England was exceptional. However, the ideas and insti-
tutions developed by New England Puritans had power-
(45) ful effects on North American culture.
   Although Bailyn goes on to apply his approach to
some thousands of indentured servants who migrated
just prior to the revolution, he fails to link their experi-
ence with the political development of the United States.
(50) Evidence presented in his work suggests how we might
make such a connection. These indentured servants were
treated as slaves for the period during which they had
sold their time to American employers. It is not surprising
that as soon as they served their time they passed up
(55) good wages in the cities and headed west to ensure their
personal independence by acquiring land. Thus, it is in
the west that a peculiarly American political culture
began, among colonists who were suspicious of
authority and intensely antiaristocratic.

1. Which of the following statements about migrants to
   colonial North America is supported by information in
     the passage?
  (A) A larger percentage of migrants to colonial North
     America came as indentured servants than as free
     agents interested in acquiring land.
  (B) Migrants who came to the colonies as indentured
     servants were more successful at making a
     livelihood than were farmers and artisans.
  (C) Migrants to colonial North America were more
     successful at acquiring their own land during the
     eighteenth century than during the seven-tenth
     century.
  (D) By the 1730's, migrants already skilled in a
     trade were in more demand by American
     employers than were unskilled laborers.
  (E) A significant percentage of migrants who came to
     the colonies to acquire land were forced to work as   
     field hands for prosperous American farmers.
2. The author of the passage states that Bailyn failed to
  (A) give sufficient emphasis to the cultural and political
     interdependence of the colonies and England
  (B) describe carefully how migrants of different ethnic
     backgrounds preserved their culture in the united
     States
  (C) take advantage of social research on the experi-
     ences of colonists who migrated to colonial North
     America specifically to acquire land
  (D) relate the experience of the migrants to the political
     values that eventually shaped the character of the
     United States
  (E) investigate the lives of Europeans before they came
     to colonial North America to determine more
     adequately their motivations for migrating

3. Which of the following best summarizes the author's
   evaluation of Bailyn's fourth proposition?
  (A) It is totally implausible.
  (B) It is partially correct.
  (C) It is highly admirable.
  (D) It is controversial though persuasive.
  (E) It is intriguing though unsubstantiated.

4. According to the passage, Bailyn and the author agree
  on which of the following statements about the culture
  of colonial New England?
  (A) High culture in New England never equaled the high
     culture of England.
  (B) The cultural achievements of colonial New
     England have generally been unrecognized by
     historians.
  (C) The colonists imitated the high culture of England,
     and did not develop a culture that was uniquely their
     own.
  (D) The southern colonies were greatly influenced by
     the high culture of New England.
  (E) New England communities were able to create laws
     and build a university, but unable to create anything
     innovative in the arts.
5. According to the passage, which of the following is true
   of English migrants to the colonies during the
   eighteenth century?
  (A) Most of them were farmers rather than trades
     people or artisans.
  (B) Most of them came because they were unable
     to find work in England.
  (C) They differed from other English people in that
     they were willing to travel.
  (D) They expected that the colonies would offer
     them increased opportunity.
  (E) They were generally not as educated as the
     people who remained in England.

6. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
  (A) comparing several current interpretations of early
     American history
  (B) suggesting that new social research on migration
     should lead to revisions in current interpretations of
     early American history
  (C) providing the theoretical framework that is used by
     most historians in understanding early American
     history
  (D) refuting an argument about early American history
     that has been proposed by social historians
  (E) discussing a reinterpretation of early American
     history that is based on new social research on
     migration

7. It can be inferred from the passage that American
  history textbooks used to assert that
  (A) many migrants to colonial North America were not
     successful financially
  (B) more migrants came to America out of religious or
     political conviction that came in the hope of
      acquiring land
  (C) New England communities were much alike in
     terms of their economics and demographics
  (D) many migrants to colonial North America failed to
     maintain ties with their European relations
  (E) the level of literacy in New England communities
     was very high

8. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree
  with which of the following statements about Bailyn's
  work?
  (A) Bailyn underestimates the effects of Puritan thought
     on North American culture
  (B) Bailyn overemphasizes the economic dependence of
     the colonies on Great Britain.
  (C) Bailyn's description of the colonies as part of an
     Anglo-American empire is misleading and incorrect.
  (D) Bailyn failed to test his propositions on a specific
     group of migrants to colonial North America.
  (E) Bailyn overemphasizes the experiences of migrants
     to the New England colonies, and neglects the
     southern and the western parts of the New World.


Passage 22
  Many United States companies have, unfortunately,
made the search for legal protection from import
competition into a major line of work. Since 1980 the
United States International Trade Commission (ITC)
(5) has received about 280 complaints alleging damage
from imports that benefit from subsidies by foreign
governments. Another 340 charge that foreign compa-
nies "dumped" their products in the United States at
"less than fair value." Even when no unfair practices
(10) are alleged, the simple claim that an industry has been
injured by imports is sufficient grounds to seek relief.
     Contrary to the general impression, this quest for
import relief has hurt more companies than it has
helped. As corporations begin to function globally, they
(15) develop an intricate web of marketing, production, and
research relationships, The complexity of these relation-
ships makes it unlikely that a system of import relief
laws will meet the strategic needs of all the units under
the same parent company.
(20)  Internationalization increases the danger that foreign
companies will use import relief laws against the very
companies the laws were designed to protect. Suppose a
United States-owned company establishes an overseas
plant to manufacture a product while its competitor
(25) makes the same product in the United States. If the
competitor can prove injury from the imports---and
that the United States company received a subsidy from
a foreign government to build its plant abroad-the
United States company's products will be uncompeti-
(30) tive in the United States, since they would be subject to
duties.
     Perhaps the most brazen case occurred when the ITC
investigated allegations that Canadian companies were
injuring the United States salt industry by dumping
(35) rock salt, used to de-ice roads. The bizarre aspect of the
complaint was that a foreign conglomerate with United
States operations was crying for help against a United
States company with foreign operations. The "United
States" company claiming injury was a subsidiary of a
(40) Dutch conglomerate, while the "Canadian" companies
included a subsidiary of a Chicago firm that was the
second-largest domestic producer of rock salt.
1. The passage is chiefly concerned with
  (A) arguing against the increased internationalization of
     United States corporations
  (B) warning that the application of laws affecting trade
     frequently has unintended consequences
  (C) demonstrating that foreign-based firms receive more
     subsidies from their governments than United States
     firms receive from the United States government
  (D) advocating the use of trade restrictions for
      "dumped" products but not for other imports
  (E) recommending a uniform method for handling
     claims of unfair trade practices

2. It can be inferred from the passage that the minimal
     basis for a complaint to the International Trade
     Commission is which of the following?
  (A) A foreign competitor has received a subsidy from a
     foreign government.
  (B) A foreign competitor has substantially increased the
     volume of products shipped to the United States.
  (C) A foreign competitor is selling products in the
     United States at less than fair market value.
  (D) The company requesting import relief has been
     injured by the sale of imports in the United States.
  (E) The company requesting import relief has been
     barred from exporting products to the country of its
     foreign competitor.

3. The last paragraph performs which of the following
   functions in the passage?
  (A) It summarizes the discussion thus far and suggests
     additional areas of research.
  (B) It presents a recommendation based on the evidence
     presented earlier.
  (C) It discusses an exceptional case in which the results
     expected by the author of the passage were not
     obtained.
  (D) It introduces an additional area of concern not
     mentioned earlier.
  (E) It cites a specific case that illustrates a problem
     presented more generally in the previous paragraph.

4. The passage warns of which of the following dangers?
  (A) Companies in the United States may receive no
     protection from imports unless they actively seek
     protection from import competition.
  (B) Companies that seek legal protection from import
     competition may incur legal costs that far exceed
     any possible gain.
  (C) Companies that are United States-owned but operate
     internationally may not be eligible for protection
     from import competition under the laws of the
     countries in which their plants operate.
  (D) Companies that are not United States-owned may
     seek legal protection from import competition under
     United States import relief laws.
  (E) Companies in the United States that import raw
     materials may have to pay duties on those materials.
5. The passage suggests that which of the following is
  most likely to be true of United States trade laws?
  (A) They will eliminate the practice of "dumping"
     products in the United States.
  (B) They will enable manufacturers in the United
     States to compete more profitably outside the
     United States.
  (C) They will affect United States trade with Canada
     more negatively than trade with other nations.
  (D) Those that help one unit within a parent company
     will not necessarily help other units in the company.
  (E) Those that are applied to international companies
     will accomplish their intended result.

6. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
  believes which of the following about the complaint
  mentioned in the last paragraph?
  (A) The ITC acted unfairly toward the complainant
     in its investigation.
  (B) The complaint violated the intent of import relief
     laws.
  (C) The response of the ITC to the complaint provided
     suitable relief from unfair trade practices to the   
     complainant.
  (D) The ITC did not have access to appropriate
     information concerning the case.
  (E) Each of the companies involved in the complaint
     acted in its own best interest.

7. According to the passage, companies have the general
  impression that International Trade Commission import
  relief practices have
  (A) caused unpredictable fluctuations in volumes of
     imports and exports
  (B) achieved their desired effect only under unusual
      circumstances
  (C) actually helped companies that have requested
     import relief
  (D) been opposed by the business community
  (E) had less impact on international companies than the
     business community expected

8. According to the passage, the International Trade
  Commission is involved in which of the following?
  (A) Investigating allegations of unfair import
     competition
  (B) Granting subsidies to companies in the United States
     that have been injured by import competition
  (C) Recommending legislation to ensure fair
  (D) Identifying international corporations that wish to
     build plants in the United States
  (E) Assisting corporations in the United States that wish
     to compete globally


Passage 23
At the end of the nineteenth century, a rising interest
  in Native American customs and an increasing desire to
  understand Native American culture prompted ethnolo-
  gists to begin recording the life stories of Native Amer-
(5) ican. Ethnologists had a distinct reason for wanting to
hear the stories: they were after linguistic or anthropo-
logical data that would supplement their own field
observations, and they believed that the personal
stories, even of a single individual, could increase their
(10) understanding of the cultures that they had been
observing from without. In addition many ethnologists
at the turn of the century believed that Native Amer-
ican manners and customs were rapidly disappearing,
and that it was important to preserve for posterity as
(15) much information as could be adequately recorded
before the cultures disappeared forever.
     There were, however, arguments against this method
as a way of acquiring accurate and complete informa-
tion. Franz Boas, for example, described autobiogra-
(20) phies as being "of limited value, and useful chiefly for
the study of the perversion of truth by memory," while
Paul Radin contended that investigators rarely spent
enough time with the tribes they were observing, and
inevitably derived results too tinged by the investi-
(25) gator's own emotional tone to be reliable.
      Even more importantly, as these life stories moved
from the traditional oral mode to recorded written
form, much was inevitably lost. Editors often decided
what elements were significant to the field research on a
(30) given tribe. Native Americans recognized that the
essence of their lives could not be communicated in
English and that events that they thought significant
were often deemed unimportant by their interviewers.
Indeed, the very act of telling their stories could force
(35) Native American narrators to distort their cultures, as
taboos had to be broken to speak the names of dead
relatives crucial to their family stories.
      Despite all of this, autobiography remains a useful
tool for ethnological research: such personal reminis-
(40) cences and impressions, incomplete as they may be, are
likely to throw more light on the working of the mind
and emotions than any amount of speculation from an
ethnologist or ethnological theorist from another
culture.

1. Which of the following best describes the organization
   of the passage?
  (A) The historical backgrounds of two currently used
      research methods are chronicled.
  (B) The validity of the data collected by using two
     different research methods is compared.
  (C) The usefulness of a research method is questioned
     and then a new method is proposed.
  (D) The use of a research method is described and the
      limitations of the results obtained are discussed.
  (E) A research method is evaluated and the changes
     necessary for its adaptation to other subject areas are
     discussed.

2. Which of the following is most similar to the actions of
  nineteenth-century ethnologists in their editing of the
  life stories of Native Americans?
  (A) A witness in a jury trial invokes the Fifth
     Amendment in order to avoid relating personally
     incriminating evidence.
  (B) A stockbroker refuses to divulge the source of her
     information on the possible future increase in a
     stock's value.
  (C) A sports announcer describes the action in a team
     sport with which he is unfamiliar.
  (D) A chef purposely excludes the special ingredient
     from the recipe of his prizewinning dessert.
  (E) A politician fails to mention in a campaign speech
     the similarities in the positions held by her opponent
     for political office and by herself.

3. According to the passage, collecting life stories can be a
  useful methodology because
  (A) life stories provide deeper insights into a culture
     than the hypothesizing of academics who are not
     members of that culture
  (B) life stories can be collected easily and they are not
     subject to invalid interpretations
  (C) ethnologists have a limited number of research
     methods from which to choose
  (D) life stories make it easy to distinguish between the
     important and unimportant features of a culture
  (E) the collection of life stories does not require a
     culturally knowledgeable investigator

4. Information in the passage suggests that which of
  the following may be a possible way to eliminate
  bias in the editing of life stories?
  (A) Basing all inferences made about the culture
     on an ethnological theory
  (B) Eliminating all of the emotion-laden information
     reported by the informant
  (C) Translating the informant's words into the
     researcher's language
  (D) Reducing the number of questions and carefully
     specifying the content of the questions that the
     investigator can ask the informant
  (E) Reporting all of the information that the informant
     provides regardless of the investigator's personal
     opinion about its intrinsic value

5. The primary purpose of the passage as a whole is to
  (A) question an explanation
  (B) correct a misconception
  (C) critique a methodology
  (D) discredit an idea
  (E) clarify an ambiguity

6. It can be inferred from the passage that a characteristic
  of the ethnological research on Native Americans
  conducted during the nineteenth century was the use
  of which of the following?
  (A) Investigators familiar with the culture under study
  (B) A language other than the informant's for recording
     life stories
  (C) Life stories as the ethnologist's primary source of
     information
  (D) Complete transcriptions of informants' descriptions
      of tribal beliefs
  (E) Stringent guidelines for the preservation of cultural
     data

7. The passage mentions which of the following as a factor
   that can affect the accuracy of ethnologists'
   transcriptions of life stories?
  (A) The informants' social standing within the culture
  (B) The inclusiveness of the theory that provided the
     basis for the research
  (C) The length of time the researchers spent in the
     culture under study
  (D) The number of life stories collected by the
      researchers
  (E) The verifiability of the information provided by the
     research informants

8. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would
  be most likely to agree with which of the following
  statements about the usefulness of life stories as a source
  of ethnographic information?
  (A) They can be a source of information about how
      people in a culture view the world.
  (B) They are most useful as a source of linguistic
      information.
  (C) They require editing and interpretation before they
     can be useful.
  (D) They are most useful as a source of information
     about ancestry.
  (E) They provide incidental information rather than
     significant insights into a way of life.


Passage 24
     All of the cells in a particular plant start out with the
  same complement of genes. How then can these cells
  differentiate and form structures as different as roots,
  stems, leaves, and fruits? The answer is that only a
(5) small subset of the genes in a particular kind of cell are
  expressed, or turned on, at a given time. This is accom-
  plished by a complex system of chemical messengers
  that in plants include hormones and other regulatory
molecules. Five major hormones have been identified:
(10) auxin, abscisic acid, cytokinin, ethylene, and gibberel-
lin. Studies of plants have now identified a new class of
regulatory molecules called oligosaccharins.
  Unlike the oligosaccharins, the five well-known plant
hormones are pleiotropic rather than specific, that is,
(15) each has more than one effect on the growth and devel-
opment of plants. The five has so many simultaneous
effects that they are not very useful in artificially
controlling the growth of crops. Auxin, for instance,
stimulates the rate of cell elongation, causes shoots to
(20) grow up and roots to grow down, and inhibits the
growth of lateral shoots. Auxin also causes the plant to
develop a vascular system, to form lateral roots, and to
produce ethylene.
     The pleiotropy of the five well-studied plant
(25) hormones is somewhat analogous to that of certain
   hormones in animal. For example, hormones from the
hypothalamus in the brain stimulate the anterior lobe
of the pituitary gland to synthesize and release many
different hormones, one of which stimulates the release
(30) of hormones from the adrenal cortex. These hormones
   have specific effects on target organs all over the body.
One hormone stimulates the thyroid gland, for
example, another the ovarian follicle cells, and so forth.
In other words, there is a hierarchy of hormones.
(35)  Such a hierarchy may also exist in plants. Oligosac-
charins are fragments of the cell wall released by
enzymes: different enzymes release different oligosac-
   charins. There are indications that pleiotropic plant
   hormones may actually function by activating the
(40) enzymes that release these other, more specific chemical
   messengers from the cell wall.

1. According to the passage, the five well-known plant
  hormones are not useful in controlling the growth of
     crops because
  (A) it is not known exactly what functions the hormones
     perform
  (B) each hormone has various effects on plants
  (C) none of the hormones can function without the
     others
  (D) each hormone has different effects on different kinds
     of plants
  (E) each hormone works on only a small subset of a
     cell's genes at any particular time

2. The passage suggests that the place of hypothalamic
  hormones in the hormonal hierarchies of animals is
  similar to the place of which of the following in plants?
  (A) Plant cell walls
  (B) The complement of genes in each plant cell
  (C) A subset of a plant cell's gene complement
  (D) The five major hormones
  (E) The oligosaccharins

3. The passage suggests that which of the following is a
   function likely to be performed by an oligosaccharin?
  (A) To stimulate a particular plant cell to become part of
     a plant's root system
  (B) To stimulate the walls of a particular cell to produce
     other oligosaccharins
  (C) To activate enzymes that release specific chemical
     messengers from plant cell walls
  (D) To duplicate the gene complement in a particular
     plant cell
  (E) To produce multiple effects on a particular
     subsystem of plant cells

4. The author mentions specific effects that auxin has on
  plant development in order to illustrate the
  (A) point that some of the effects of plant hormones can
     be harmful
  (B) way in which hormones are produced by plants
  (C) hierarchical nature of the functioning of plant
     hormones
  (D) differences among the best-known plant hormones
  (E) concept of pleiotropy as it is exhibited by plant
     hormones

5. According to the passage, which of the following best
  describes a function performed by oligosaccharins?
  (A) Regulating the daily functioning of a plant's cells
  (B) Interacting with one another to produce different
     chemicals
  (C) Releasing specific chemical messengers from a
     plant's cell walls
  (D) Producing the hormones that cause plant cells to
     differentiate to perform different functions
  (E) Influencing the development of a plant's cells by
     controlling the expression of the cells' genes

6. The passage suggests that, unlike the pleiotropic
  hormones, oligosaccharins could be used effectively
  to
  (A) trace the passage of chemicals through the walls of
   cells
  (B) pinpoint functions of other plant hormones
  (C) artificially control specific aspects of the
     development of crops
  (D) alter the complement of genes in the cells of plants  
  (E) alter the effects of the five major hormones on
     plant development

7. The author discusses animal hormones primarily in
  order to
  (A) introduce the idea of a hierarchy of hormones
  (B) explain the effects that auxin has on plant cells
  (C) contrast the functioning of plant hormones and
     animals hormones
  (D) illustrate the way in which particular hormones
     affect animals
  (E) explain the distinction between hormones and
     regulatory molecules


Passage 25
     In 1977 the prestigious Ewha Women's University in
Seoul, Korea, announced the opening of the first
women's studies program in Asia. Few academic
programs have ever received such public attention. In
(5) broadcast debates, critics dismissed the program as a
betrayal of national identity, an imitation of Western
ideas, and a distraction from the real task of national
unification and economic development. Even supporters
underestimated the program ; they thought it would be
(10) merely another of the many Western ideas that had
already proved useful in Asian culture, akin to airlines,
electricity, and the assembly line. The founders of the
program, however, realized that neither view was
correct. They had some reservations about the appli-
(15) cability of Western feminist theories to the role of
women in Asia and felt that such theories should be
closely examined. Their approach has thus far yielded
important critiques of Western theory, informed by the
special experience of Asian women.
(20)   For instance, like the Western feminist critique of the
Freudian model of the human psyche, the Korean critique finds Freudian theory culture-bound, ybut in
ways different from those cited by Western theorists.
The Korean theorists claim that Freudian theory
(25) assumes the universality of the Western nuclear, male-
headed family and focuses on the personality formation
of the individual, independent of society, An analysis
based on such assumptions could be valid for a highly
competitive, individualistic society. In the Freudian
(30) family drama, family members are assumed to be
engaged in a Darwinian struggle against each other-
father against son and sibling against sibling. Such a
concept of projects the competitive model of Western
society onto human personalities. But in the Asian
(35) concept of personality there is no ideal attached to indi
vidualism or to the independent self. The Western model
of personality development does not explain major char-
acteristics of the Korean personality, which is social and
group-centered. The "self" is a social being defined by
(40) and acting in a group, and the well-being of both men
and women is determined by the equilibrium of the
group, not by individual self-assertion. The ideal is one
of interdependency.
    In such a context, what is recognized as "depen-
(45) dency" in Western psychiatric terms is not, in Korean
terms, an admission of weakness or failure. All this bears
directly on the Asian perception of men's and women's
psychology because men are also " dependent", In
Korean culture, men cry and otherwise easily show their
(50) emotions, something that might be considered a betrayal
of masculinity in Western culture. In the kinship-based
society of Korea, four generations may live in the same
house, which means that people can be sons and daugh-
ters all their lives, whereas in Western culture, the roles
of husband and son, wife and daughter, are often incom-
patible.

1. Which of the following best summarizes the content of
  the passage?
  (A) A critique of a particular women's studies program
  (B) A report of work in social theory done by a
     particular women's studies program
  (C) An assessment of the strengths and weaknesses
     of a particular women's studies program
  (D) An analysis of the philosophy underlying
     women's studies programs
  (E) An abbreviated history of Korean women's
     studies programs

2. It can be inferred from the passage that Korean
  scholars in the field of women's studies undertook
  an analysis of Freudian theory as a response to
  which of the following?
  (A) Attacks by critics of the Ewha women's studies
     program
  (B) The superficiality of earlier critiques of Freudian
     theory
  (C) The popularity of Freud in Korean psychiatric
     circles
  (D) Their desire to encourage Korean scholars to
     adopt the Freudian model
  (E) Their assessment of the relevance and limitations of  
     Western feminist theory with respect to Korean
     culture

3. Which of the following conclusions about the
  introduction of Western ideas to Korean society can be
  supported by information contained in the passage?
  (A) Except for technological innovations, few Western
      ideas have been successfully transplanted into
      Korean society.
  (B) The introduction of Western ideas to Korean society
      is viewed by some Koreans as a challenge to
       Korean identity.
  (C) The development of the Korean economy depends
      heavily on the development of new academic
      programs modeled after Western programs.
  (D) The extent to which Western ideas must be adapted
      for acceptance by Korean society is minimal.
  (E) The introduction of Western ideas to Korean society
     accelerated after 1977.

4. It can be inferred from the passage that the broadcast
  media in Korea considered the establishment of the
  Ewha women's studies program
  (A) praiseworthy
  (B) insignificant
  (C) newsworthy
  (D) imitative
  (E) incomprehensible

5. It can be inferred from the passage that the position
  taken by some of the supporters of the Ewha women's
  studies program was problematic to the founders of the
  program because those supporters
  (A) assumed that the program would be based on the
      uncritical adoption of Western theory
  (B) failed to show concern for the issues of national
      unification and economic development
  (C) were unfamiliar with Western feminist theory
  (D) were not themselves scholars in the field of
     women's studies
  (E) accepted the universality of Freudian theory

6. Which of the following statements is most consistent
   with the view of personality development held by the
   Ewha women's studies group?
  (A) Personality development occurs in identifiable
     stages, beginning with dependency in childhood
     and ending with independence in adulthood.
  (B) Any theory of personality development, in order
     to be valid, must be universal.
  (C) Personality development is influenced by the
     characteristics of the society in which a person
     lives.
  (D) Personality development is hindered if a person
     is not permitted to be independent.
  (E) No theory of personality development can account
     for the differences between Korean and Western
     culture.

7. Which of the following statements about the Western
   feminist critique of Freudian theory can be supported
   by information contained in the passage?
  (A) It recognizes the influence of Western culture on
     Freudian theory.
  (B) It was written after 1977.
  (C) It acknowledges the universality of the nuclear,
      male-headed family.
  (D) It challenges Freud's analysis of the role of
     daughters in Western society.
  (E) It fails to address the issue of competitiveness in
     Western society.

8. According to the passage, critics of the Ewha women's
  studies program cited the program as a threat to which
  of the following?
  ﾢ￱. National identity
  ﾢ￲. National unification
  ﾢ￳. Economic development
  ﾢ￴.Family integrity
  (A) ﾢ￱ only
  (B) ﾢ￱ and ﾢ￲ only
  (C) ﾢ￱,ﾢ￲,and ﾢ￳ only
  (D) ﾢ￲, ﾢ￳, and ﾢ￴ only
  (E) ﾢ￱,ﾢ￲,ﾢ￳, and ﾢ￴


Passage 26
In choosing a method for determining climatic condi-
tions that existed in the past, paleoclimatologists invoke
four principal criteria. First, the material---rocks, lakes,
vegetation, etc-on which the method relies must be
(5) widespread enough to provide plenty of information,
since analysis of material that is rarely encountered will
not permit correlation with other regions or with other
periods of geological history. Second, in the process of
formation, the material must have received an environ-
(10) mental signal that reflects a change in climate and that
can be deciphered by modern physical or chemical
means. Third, at least some of the material must have
retained the signal unaffected by subsequent changes in
the environment. Fourth, it must be possible to deter-
(15) mine the time at which the inferred climatic conditions
held. This last criterion is more easily met in dating
marine sediments, because dating of only a small
number of layers in a marine sequence allows the age of
other layers to be estimated fairly reliably by extrapola-
(20) tion and interpolation. By contrast, because sedimenta-
tion is much less continuous in continental regions, esti-
mating the age of a continental bed from the known
ages of beds above and below is more risky.
  One very old method used in the investigation of past
(25) climatic conditions involves the measurement of water
levels in ancient lakes. In temperate regions, there are
enough lakes for correlations between them to give us a
reliable picture. In arid and semiarid regions, on the
other hand, the small number of lakes and the great
(30) distances between them reduce the possibilities for corre-
lation. Moreover, since lake levels are controlled by rates
of evaporation as well as by precipitation, the interpreta-
tion of such levels is ambiguous. For instance, the fact
that lake levels in the semiarid southwestern United
(35) States appear to have been higher during the last ice age
than they are now was at one time attributed to
increased precipitation. On the basis of snow-line eleva-
tions, however, it has been concluded that the climate
then was not necessarily wetter than it is now, but rather
(40) that both summers and winters were cooler, resulting in
   reduced evaporation.
     Another problematic method is to reconstruct former
climates on the basis of pollen profiles. The type of vege-
tation in a specific region is determined by identifying
(45) and counting the various pollen grains found there.
Although the relationship between vegetation and
climate is not as direct as the relationship between
climate and lake levels, the method often works well in
the temperate zones. In arid and semiarid regions in
(50) which there is not much vegetation, however, small
changes in one or a few plant types can change the
picture dramatically, making accurate correlations
   between neighboring areas difficult to obtain.

1. Which of the following statements about the
  difference between marine and continental
  sedimentation is supported by information in the
  passage?
  (A) Data provided by dating marine sedimentation is
     more consistent with researchers' findings in
     other disciplines than is data provided by dating
     continental sedimentation.
  (B) It is easier to estimate the age of a layer in a
     sequence of continental sedimentation than it
     is to estimate the age of a layer in a sequence
     of marine sedimentation.
  (C) Marine sedimentation is much less widespread
     than continental sedimentation.
  (D) Researchers are more often forced to rely on
     extrapolation when dating a layer of marine
     sedimentation than when dating a layer of
     continental sedimentation.
  (E) Marine sedimentation is much more continuous
     than is continental sedimentation.

2. Which of the following statements best describes the
   organization of the passage as a whole?
  (A) The author describes a method for determining past
     climatic conditions and then offers specific
     examples of situations in which it has been used.
  (B) The author discusses the method of dating marine
     and continental sequences and then explains how
     dating is more difficult with lake levels than with
     pollen profiles.
  (C) The author describes the common requirements of
      methods for determining past climatic conditions
  and then discusses examples of such methods.
  (D) The author describes various ways of choosing a
      material for determining past climatic conditions
      and then discusses how two such methods have
      yielded contradictory data.
  (E) The author describes how methods for determining
      past climatic conditions were first developed and
      then describes two of the earliest known methods.

3. It can be inferred from the passage that
  paleoclimatologists have concluded which of the
  following on the basis of their study of snow-line
  elevations in the southwestern United States?
  (A) There is usually more precipitation during an ice age
      because of increased amounts of evaporation.
  (B) There was less precipitation during the last ice age
     than there is today.
  (C) Lake levels in the semiarid southwestern United
     States were lower during the last ice age than they
     are today.
  (D) During the last ice age, cooler weather led to lower
     lake levels than paleoclimatologists had previously
     assumed.
  (E) The high lake levels during the last ice age may have
     been a result of less evaporation rather than more
     precipitation.

4. Which of the following would be the most likely topic
   for a paragraph that logically continues the passage?
  (A) The kinds of plants normally found in arid regions
  (B) The effect of variation in lake levels on pollen
     distribution
  (C) The material best suited to preserving signals of
     climatic changes
  (D) Other criteria invoked by paleoclimatologists when
     choosing a method to determine past climatic
     conditions
  (E) A third method for investigating past climatic
     conditions

5. The author discusses lake levels in the southwestern
  United States in order to
  (A) illustrate the mechanics of the relationship between
     lake level, evaporation, and precipitation
  (B) provide an example of the uncertainty involved in
     interpreting lake levels
  (C) prove that there are not enough ancient lakes with
     which to make accurate correlations
  (D) explain the effects of increased rates of evaporation
     on levels of precipitation
  (E) suggest that snow-line elevations are invariably
     more accurate than lake levels in determining rates
     of precipitation at various points in the past

6. It can be inferred from the passage that an
  environmental signal found in geological material
  would not be useful to paleoclimatologists if it
  (A) had to be interpreted by modern chemical means
  (B) reflected a change in climate rather than a long-
     term climatic condition
  (C) was incorporated into a material as the material was
     forming
  (D) also reflected subsequent environmental changes
  (E) was contained in a continental rather than a marine
     sequence

7. According to the passage, the material used to determine
  past climatic conditions must be widespread for which
     of the following reasons?
  ﾢ￱.Paleoclimatologists need to make comparisons
     between periods of geological history.
  ﾢ￲. Paleoclimatologists need to compare materials that
     have supported a wide variety of vegetation.
  ﾢ￳. Paleoclimatologists need to make comparisons with
     data collected in other regions.  
  (A) ﾢ￱ only
  (B) ﾢ￲ only
  (C) ﾢ￱ and ﾢ￲ only
  (D) ﾢ￱ and ﾢ￳ only
  (E) ﾢ￲ and ﾢ￳ only

8. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage
  about the study of past climates in arid and semiarid
  regions?
  (A) It is sometimes more difficult to determine past
climatic conditions in arid and semiarid regions than
in temperate regions.
  (B) Although in the past more research has been done on
     temperate regions, paleoclimatologists have
     recently turned their attention to arid and semiarid
     regions.
  (C) Although more information about past climates can
     be gathered in arid and semiarid than in temperate
     regions, dating this information is more difficult.
  (D) It is difficult to study the climatic history of arid and
     semiarid regions because their climates have tended
     to vary more than those of temperate regions.
  (E) The study of past climates in arid and semiarid
     regions has been neglected because temperate
     regions support a greater variety of plant and animal
     life.


Passage 27
      Since the late 1970's, in the face of a severe loss of
market share in dozens of industries, manufacturers in
the United States have been trying to improve produc-
tivity-and therefore enhance their international
(5) competitiveness-through cost-cutting programs. (Cost-
cutting here is defined as raising labor output while
holding the amount of labor constant.) However, from
1978 through 1982, productivity-the value of goods
manufactured divided by the amount of labor input-
(10) did not improve; and while the results were better in the
business upturn of the three years following, they ran 25
percent lower than productivity improvements during
earlier, post-1945 upturns. At the same time, it became clear that the harder manufactures worked to imple-
(15) ment cost-cutting, the more they lost their competitive
edge.
   With this paradox in mind, I recently visited 25
companies; it became clear to me that the cost-cutting
approach to increasing productivity is fundamentally
(20) flawed. Manufacturing regularly observes a "40, 40, 20"
rule. Roughly 40 percent of any manufacturing-based
competitive advantage derives from long-term changes
in manufacturing structure (decisions about the number,
   size, location, and capacity of facilities) and in approaches
(25) to materials. Another 40 percent comes from major
changes in equipment and process technology. The final
20 percent rests on implementing conventional cost-
cutting. This rule does not imply that cost-cutting should
not be tried. The well-known tools of this approach-
(30) including simplifying jobs and retraining employees to
work smarter, not harder-do produce results. But the
tools quickly reach the limits of what they can
contribute.
     Another problem is that the cost-cutting approach
(35) hinders innovation and discourages creative people. As
Abernathy's study of automobile manufacturers has
shown, an industry can easily become prisoner of its
own investments in cost-cutting techniques, reducing its
ability to develop new products. And managers under
(40) pressure to maximize cost-cutting will resist innovation
because they know that more fundamental changes in
processes or systems will wreak havoc with the results on
which they are measured. Production managers have
always seen their job as one of minimizing costs and
(45) maximizing output. This dimension of performance has
until recently sufficed as a basis of evaluation, but it has
created a penny-pinching, mechanistic culture in most
factories that has kept away creative managers.
Every company I know that has freed itself from the
(50) paradox has done so, in part, by developing and imple-
menting a manufacturing strategy. Such a strategy
focuses on the manufacturing structure and on equip-
ment and process technology. In one company a manu-
facturing strategy that allowed different areas of the
(55) factory to specialize in different markets replaced the
conventional cost-cutting approach; within three years
the company regained its competitive advantage.
Together with such strategies, successful companies are
also encouraging managers to focus on a wider set of
objectives besides cutting costs. There is hope for manufacturing, but it clearly rests on a different way of
managing.

1.The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
  (A) summarizing a thesis
  (B) recommending a different approach
  (C) comparing points of view
  (D) making a series of predictions
  (E) describing a number of paradoxes

2. It can be inferred from the passage that the manufacturrs
  mentioned in line 2 expected that the measures they
  implemented would   
  (A) encourage innovation
  (B) keep labor output constant
  (C) increase their competitive advantage
  (D) permit business upturns to be more easily predicted
  (E) cause managers to focus on a wider set of objectives

3. The primary function of the first paragraph of the
   passage is to
  (A) outline in brief the author's argument
  (B) anticipate challenges to the prescriptions that follow
  (C) clarify some disputed definitions of economic terms
  (D) summarize a number of long-accepted explanations
  (E) present a historical context for the author's
     observations

4. The author refers to Abernathy's study (line 36) most
   probably in order to
  (A) qualify an observation about one rule governing
      manufacturing
  (B) address possible objections to a recommendation
      about improving manufacturing competitiveness
  (C) support an earlier assertion about one method of
      increasing productivity
  (D) suggest the centrality in the United States economy
     of a particular manufacturing industry
  (E) given an example of research that has questioned the
     wisdom of revising a manufacturing strategy

5. The author's attitude toward the culture in most factories
  is best described as
  (A) cautious
  (B) critical
  (C) disinterested
  (D) respectful
  (E) adulatory

6. In the passage, the author includes all of the following  
  EXCEPT
  (A) personal observation
  (B) a business principle
  (C) a definition of productivity
  (D) an example of a successful company
  (E) an illustration of a process technology

7. The author suggests that implementing conventional
  cost-cutting as a way of increasing manufacturing
  competitiveness is a strategy that is
  (A) flawed and ruinous
  (B) shortsighted and difficult to sustain
  (C) popular and easily accomplished
  (D) useful but inadequate
  (E) misunderstood but promising


















Passage 28

         The settlement of the United States has occupied
  traditional historians since 1893 when Frederick Jackson
  Turner developed his Frontier Thesis, a thesis that
  explained American development in terms of westward
(5) expansion. From the perspective of women's history,
  Turner's exclusively masculine assumptions constitute a
  major drawback: his defenders and critics alike have
  reconstructed men's, not women's, lives on the frontier.
  However, precisely because of this masculine orientation,
(10)revising the Frontier Thesis by focusing on women's
  experience introduces new themes into women's
  history-woman as lawmaker and entrepreneur-and,
  consequently, new interpretations of women's relation-
  ship to capital, labor, and statute.
(15)Turner claimed that the frontier produced the indivi-
  dualism that is the hallmark of American culture, and
  that this individualism in turn promoted democratic
  institutions and economic equality. He argued for the
  frontier as an agent of social change. Most novelists and
(20) historians writing in the early to midtwentieth century
  who considered women in the West, when they consid-
  ered women at all, fell under Turner's spell. In their
  works these authors tended to glorify women's contribu-
  tions to frontier life. Western women, in Turnerian tradi-
(25) tion, were a fiercely independent, capable, and durable
  lot, free from the constraints binding their eastern sisters.
  This interpretation implied that the West provided a
  congenial environment where women could aspire to
  their own goals, free from constrictive stereotypes and
(30) sexist attitudes. In Turnerian terminology, the frontier
  had furnished "a gate of escape from the bondage of the
  past."
By the middle of the twentieth century, the Frontier
   Thesis fell into disfavor among historians. Later, Reac-
(35) tionist writers took the view that frontier women were
   lonely, displaced persons in a hostile milieu that intensi-
   fied the worst aspects of gender relations. The renais-
   sance of the feminist movement during the 1970's led to
   the Stasist school, which sidestepped the good bad
(40) dichotomy and argued that frontier women lived lives
  similar to the live of women in the East. In one now-
  standard text, Faragher demonstrated the persistence of
  the "cult of true womanhood" and the illusionary qual-
  ity of change on the westward journey. Recently the
(45) Stasist position has been revised but not entirely
   discounted by new research.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
  (A) provide a framework within which the history of
women in nineteenth-century America can be
organized.
  (B) discuss divergent interpretations of women's
     experience on the western frontier
  (C) introduce a new hypothesis about women's
     experience in nineteenth-century America
  (D) advocate an empirical approach to women's
     experience on the western frontier
  (E) resolve ambiguities in several theories about
     women's experience on the western frontier

2. Which of the following can be inferred about the
   novelists and historians mentioned in lines 19-20?
  (A) They misunderstood the powerful influence of
      constrictive stereotypes on women in the East.
  (B) They assumed that the frontier had offered more
     opportunities to women than had the East.
  (C) They included accurate information about women's
     experiences on the frontier.
  (D) They underestimated the endurance and fortitude of
      frontier women.
  (E) They agreed with some of Turner's assumptions
      about frontier women, but disagreed with other
      assumptions that he made.

3. Which of the following, if true, would provide
  additional evidence for the Stasists' argument as it is
  described in the passage?
  (A) Frontier women relied on smaller support groups of
     relatives and friends in the West than they had in the
     East.
  (B) The urban frontier in the West offered more
     occupational opportunity than the agricultural
     frontier offered.
  (C) Women participated more fully in the economic
     decisions of the family group in the West than they
     had in the East.
  (D) Western women received financial compensation for
     labor that was comparable to what women received
     in the East.
  (E) Western women did not have an effect on divorce
     laws, but lawmakers in the West were more  
responsive to women's concerns than lawmakers in
the East were.

4. According to the passage, Turner makes which of the
  following connections in his Frontier Thesis?
ﾢ￱. A connection between American individualism and
economic equality
ﾢ￲. A connection between geographical expansion and
social change
ﾢ￳. A connection between social change and financial
prosperity
  (A) I only
  (B)ﾢ￲only
  (C) ﾢ￳ only
  (D) ﾢ￱and ﾢ￲ only
  (E) ﾢ￱,ﾢ￲ and ﾢ￳

5. It can be inferred that which of the following statements
  is consistent with the Reactionist position as it is
  described in the passage?
  (A) Continuity, not change, marked women's lives as
     they moved from East to West.
  (B) Women's experience on the North American frontier
has not received enough attention from modern
historians.
  (C) Despite its rigors, the frontier offered women
     opportunities that had not been available in the East.
  (D) Gender relations were more difficult for women in
     the West than they were in the East.
  (E) Women on the North American frontier adopted new
   roles while at the same time reaffirming traditional
   roles.

6. Which of the following best describes the organization
  of the passage?
  (A) A current interpretation of a phenomenon is
     described and then ways in which it was developed
     are discussed.
  (B) Three theories are presented and then a new
     hypothesis that discounts those theories is described.
  (C) An important theory and its effects are discussed and
     then ways in which it has been revised are described.
  (D) A controversial theory is discussed and then
     viewpoints both for and against it are described.
  (E) A phenomenon is described and then theories
     concerning its correctness are discussed.

7. Which of the following is true of the Stasist school as it
  is described in the passage?
  (A) It provides new interpretations of women's
     relationship to work and the law.
  (B) It resolves some of the ambiguities inherent in
     Turnerian and Reactionist thought.
  (C) It has recently been discounted by new research
     gathered on women's experience.
  (D) It avoids extreme positions taken by other writers on
     women's history.
  (E) It was the first school of thought to suggest
     substantial revisions to the Frontier Thesis.


Passage 29
     Studies of the Weddell seal in the laboratory have
  described the physiological mechanisms that allow the
  seal to cope with the extreme oxygen deprivation that
  occurs during its longest dives, which can extend 500
(5) meters below the ocean's surface and last for over 70
  minutes. Recent field studies, however, suggest that
  during more typical dives in the wild, this seal's physio-
  logical behavior is different.
    In the laboratory, when the seal dives below the
(10) surface of the water and stops breathing, its heart beats
   more slowly, requiring less oxygen, and its arteries
   become constricted, ensuring that the seal's blood
   remains concentrated near those organs most crucial to
   its ability to navigate underwater. The seal essentially
(15) shuts off the flow of blood to other organs, which either
   stop functioning until the seal surfaces or switch to an
   anaerobic (oxygen-independent) metabolism. The latter
   results in the production of large amounts of lactic acid
which can adversely affect the pH of the seal's blood
(20) but since the anaerobic metabolism occurs only in those
   tissues which have been isolated from the seal's blood
   supply, the lactic acid is released into the seal's blood
   only after the seal surfaces, when the lungs, liver, and
   other organs quickly clear the acid from the seal's blood-
(25) stream.
    Recent field studies, however, reveal that on dives in
  the wild, the seal usually heads directly for its prey and
  returns to the surface in less than twenty minutes. The
  absence of high levels of lactic acid in the seal's blood
(30) after such dives suggests that during them, the seal's
  organs do not resort to the anaerobic metabolism
  observed in the laboratory, but are supplied with oxygen
  from the blood. The seal's longer excursions underwater,
during which it appears to be either exploring distant
(35)         routes or evading a predator, do evoke the diving
  response seen in the laboratory. But why do the seal's
  laboratory dives always evoke this response, regardless
  of their length or depth? Some biologists speculate that
  because in laboratory dives the seal is forcibly
(40) submerged, it does not know how long it will remain
  underwater and so prepares for the worst.

1. The passage provides information to support which of
  the following generalizations?
  (A) Observations of animals' physiological behavior in
     the wild are not reliable unless verified by laboratory
     studies.
  (B) It is generally less difficult to observe the
     physiological behavior of an animal in the wild than
     in the laboratory.
  (C) The level of lactic acid in an animal's blood is likely
to be higher when it is searching for prey than when
it s evading predators.
  (D) The level of lactic acid in an animal's blood is likely
      to be lowest during those periods in which it
      experiences oxygen deprivation.
  (E) The physiological behavior of animals in a
      laboratory setting is not always consistent with
      their physiological behavior in the wild.

2. It can be inferred from the passage that by describing the
  Weddell seal as preparing "for the worst" (line 41),
  biologists mean that it
  (A) prepares to remain underwater for no longer than
      twenty minutes
  (B) exhibits physiological behavior similar to that which
     characterizes dives in which it heads directly for its
     prey
  (C) exhibits physiological behavior similar to that which
     characterizes its longest dives in the wild.
  (D) begins to exhibit predatory behavior
  (E) clears the lactic acid from its blood before
     attempting to dive

3. The passage suggests that during laboratory dives, the
   pH of the Weddell seal's blood is not adversely
   affected by the production of lactic acid because
  (A) only those organs that are essential to the seal's
     ability to navigate underwater revert to an anaerobic
     mechanism.
  (B) the seal typically reverts to an anaerobic metabolism
     only at the very end of the dive
  (C) organs that revert to an anaerobic metabolism are
temporarily isolated from the seal's bloodstream
  (D) oxygen continues to be supplied to organs that clear  
lactic acid from the seal's bloodstream
  (E) the seal remains submerged for only short periods of
     time

4. Which of the following best summarizes the main point
     of the passage?
  (A) Recent field studies have indicated that descriptions
     of the physiological behavior of the Weddell seal
during laboratory dives are not applicable to its most
typical dives in the wild.
  (B) The Weddell seal has developed a number of unique  
        mechanisms that enable it to remain submerged at   
    depths of up to 500 meters for up to 70 minutes.
  (C) The results of recent field studies have made it
     necessary for biologists to revise previous
perceptions of how the Weddell seal behaves
physiologically during its longest dives in the wild.
  (D) Biologists speculate that laboratory studies of the
     physiological behavior of seals during dives lasting
more than twenty minutes would be more accurate if
the seals were not forcibly submerged.
  (E) How the Weddell seal responds to oxygen
     deprivation during its longest dives appears to
     depend on whether the seal is searching for prey or
     avoiding predators during such dives.

5. According to the author, which of the following is true
  of the laboratory studies mentioned in line 1 ?
  (A) They fail to explain how the seal is able to tolerate
     the increased production of lactic acid by organs
     that revert to an anaerobic metabolism during its
     longest dives in the wild.
  (B) They present an oversimplified account of
     mechanisms that the Weddell seal relies on during its
     longest dives in the wild.
  (C) They provide evidence that undermines the view
     that the Weddell seal relies on an anaerobic
     metabolism during its most typical dives in the wild.
  (D) They are based on the assumption that Weddell seals
     rarely spend more than twenty minutes underwater
     on a typical dive in the wild.
  (E) They provide an accurate account of the
     physiological behavior of Weddell seals during
     those dives in the wild in which they are either
     evading predators or exploring distant routes.

6. The author cites which of the following as characteristic
   of the Weddell seal's physiological behavior during
   dives observed in the laboratory?
  ﾢ￱. A decrease in the rate at which the seal's heart beats
  ﾢ￲. A constriction of the seal's arteries
  ﾢ￳. A decrease in the levels of lactic acid in the seal's
     blood  
  ﾢ￴. A temporary halt in the functioning of certain organs
  (A) ﾢ￱and ﾢ￳ only
  (B) ﾢ￲ and ﾢ￴ only
  (C) ﾢ￲ and ﾢ￳ only
  (D) ﾢ￱,ﾢ￲, and ﾢ￴ only
  (E) ﾢ￱,ﾢ￳, and ﾢ￴ only

7. The passage suggests that because Weddell seals are
  forcibly submerged during laboratory dives, they do
   which of the following?
  (A) Exhibit the physiological responses that are
     characteristic of dives in the wild that last less than
     twenty minutes.
  (B) Exhibit the physiological responses that are
     characteristic of the longer dives they undertake in
     the wild.
  (C) Cope with oxygen deprivation less effectively than
      they do on typical dives in the wild.
  (D) Produce smaller amounts of lactic acid than they do
     on typical dives in the wild.
  (E) Navigate less effectively than they do on typical
     dives in the wild


Passage 30
         Since the early 1970's, historians have begun to
  devote serious attention to the working class in the
  United States. Yet while we now have studies of
  working-class communities and culture, we know
(5) remarkably little of worklessness. When historians have
  paid any attention at all to unemployment, they have
  focused on the Great Depression of the 1930's. The
  narrowness of this perspective ignores the pervasive
  recessions and joblessness of the previous decades, as
(10) Alexander Keyssar shows in his recent book. Examining
  the period 1870-1920, Keyssar concentrates on Massa-
  chusetts, where the historical materials are particularly
  rich, and the findings applicable to other industrial
  areas.
(15 ) The unemployment rates that Keyssar calculates
  appear to be relatively modest, at least by Great Depres-
  sion standards: during the worst years, in the 1870's
  and 1890's, unemployment was around 15 percent. Yet
Keyssar rightly understands that a better way to
(20) measure the impact of unemployment is to calculate
  unemployment frequencies-measuring the percentage
  of workers who experience any unemployment in the
  course of a year. Given this perspective, joblessness
  looms much larger.
(25)   Keyssar also scrutinizes unemployment patterns
  according to skill level, ethnicity, race, age, class, and
  gender. He finds that rates of joblessness differed
  primarily according to class: those in middle-class and
  white-collar occupations were far less likely to be unem-
(30) ployed. Yet the impact of unemployment on a specific
  class was not always the same. Even when dependent on
the same trade, adjoining communities could have
  dramatically different unemployment rates. Keyssar uses
  these differential rates to help explain a phenomenon
(35) that has puzzled historians-the startlingly high rate of
  geographical mobility in the nineteenth-century United
  States. But mobility was not the dominant working-class
  strategy for coping with unemployment, nor was assis-
  tance from private charities or state agencies. Self-help
(40) and the help of kin got most workers through jobless
   spells.
While Keyssar might have spent more time develop-
   ing the implications of his findings on joblessness for
   contemporary public policy, his study, in its thorough
(45) research and creative use of quantitative and qualitative
   evidence, is a model of historical analysis.

1. The passage is primarily concerned with
  (A) recommending a new course of investigation
  (B) summarizing and assessing a study
  (C) making distinctions among categories
  (D) criticizing the current state of a field
  (E) comparing and contrasting two methods for
      calculating data
2. The passage suggests that before the early 1970's, which
  of the following was true of the study by historians of
  the working class in the United States?
  (A) The study was infrequent or superficial, or both.
  (B) The study was repeatedly criticized for its allegedly
  narrow focus.
  (C) The study relied more on qualitative than
     quantitative evidence.
  (D) The study focused more on the working-class
community than on working-class culture.
  (E) The study ignored working-class joblessness during
     the Great Depression.

3. According to the passage, which of the following is true
  of Keyssar's findings concerning unemployment in
  Massachusetts?
  (A) They tend to contradict earlier findings about such
      unemployment.
  (B) They are possible because Massachusetts has the
     most easily accessible historical records.
  (C) They are the first to mention the existence of high
     rates of geographical mobility in the nineteenth
     century.
  (D) They are relevant to a historical understanding of
      the nature of unemployment in other states.
  (E) They have caused historians to reconsider the role of
     the working class during the Great Depression.

4. According to the passage, which of the following is true
  of the unemployment rates mentioned in line 15
  (A) They hovered, on average, around 15 percent during  
      the period 1870-1920.
  (B) They give less than a full sense of the impact of
     unemployment on working-class people.
  (C) They overestimate the importance of middle class
     and white-collar unemployment.
  (D) They have been considered by many historians to
     underestimate the extent of working-class
     unemployment.
  (E) They are more open to question when calculated for
     years other than those of peak recession.

5. Which of the following statements about the
  unemployment rate during the Great Depression can be   
  inferred from the passage?
  (A) It was sometimes higher than 15 percent.
  (B) It has been analyzed seriously only since the early
     1970's.
  (C) It can be calculated more easily than can
   unemployment frequency.
  (D) It was never as high as the rate during the 1870's.
  (E) It has been shown by Keyssar to be lower than
previously thought.

6. According to the passage, Keyssar considers which of the
  following to be among the important predictors of the
  likelihood that a particular person would be unemployed in
  late nineteenth-century Massachusetts?
  ﾢ￱. The person's class
  ﾢ￲. Where the person lived or worked
  ﾢ￳. The person's age
  (A) ﾢ￱only
  (B) ﾢ￲only
  (C) ﾢ￱and ﾢ￲ only
  (D) ﾢ￱and ﾢ￳ only
  (E) ﾢ￱,ﾢ￲, and ﾢ￳

7. The author views Keyssar's study with
  (A) impatient disapproval
  (B) wary concern
  (C) polite skepticism
  (D) scrupulous neutrality
  (E) qualified admiration

8. Which of the following, if true, would most strongly
  support Keyssar's findings as they are described by the
     author?
  (A) Boston, Massachusetts, and Quincy, Massachusetts,
     adjoining communities, had a higher rate of
     unemployment for working-class people in 1870
     than in 1890.
  (B) White-collar professionals such as attorneys had as
     much trouble as day laborers in maintaining a steady
     level of employment throughout the period 1870-
     1920.
  (C) Working-class women living in Cambridge,
     Massachusetts, were more likely than working-class
men living in Cambridge to be unemployed for some
period of time during the year 1873.
  (D) In the 1890's, shoe-factory workers moved away in
     large numbers from Chelmsford, Massachusetts,
     where shoe factories were being replaced by other
     industries, to adjoining West Chelmsford, where the
     shoe industry flourished.
  (E) In the late nineteenth century, workers of all classes
    in Massachusetts were more likely than workers of all
classes in other states to move their place of
residence from one location to another within the
  state.


Passage 31
     The number of women directors appointed to corpo-
  rate boards in the United States has increased dramati-
  cally, but the ratio of female to male directors remains
   low. Although pressure to recruit women directors,
(5) unlike that to employ women in the general work force,
  does not derive from legislation, it is nevertheless real.
     Although small companies were the first to have
  women directors, large corporations currently have a
  higher percentage of women on their boards. When the
(10) chairs of these large corporations began recruiting
   women to serve on boards, they initially sought women
   who were chief executive officers (CEO's) of large corpo-
   rations. However, such women CEO's are still rare. In
   addition, the ideal of six CEO's (female or male ) serving
(15)  on the board of each of the largest corporations is realiz-
    able only if every CEO serves on six boards. This raises
    the specter of director overcommitment and the resultant
    dilution of contribution. Consequently, the chairs next
sought women in business who had the equivalent of
(20)  CEO experience. However, since it is only recently that
large numbers of women have begun to rise in manage-
ment, the chairs began to recruit women of high achieve-
ment outside the business world. Many such women are
well known for their contributions in government,
(25)  education, and the nonprofit sector. The fact that the
women from these sectors who were appointed were
often acquaintances of the boards' chairs seems quite
reasonable: chairs have always considered it important
for directors to interact comfortably in the boardroom.
30)     Although many successful women from outside the
business world are unknown to corporate leaders, these
women are particularly qualified to serve on boards
because of the changing nature of corporations. Today a
company's ability to be responsive to the concerns of the
35)  community and the environment can influence that
        company's growth and survival. Women are uniquely
        positioned to be responsive to some of these concerns.
        Although conditions have changed, it should be remem-
        bered that most directors of both sexes are over fifty
(40)        years old. Women of that generation were often encour-
        aged to direct their attention toward efforts to improve
        the community. This fact is reflected in the career devel-
        opment of most of the outstandingly successful women
        of the generation now in their fifties, who currently serve
(45) on corporate boards: 25 percent are in education and
   22 percent are in government, law, and the nonprofit
  sector.
   One organization of women directors is helping busi-
  ness become more responsive to the changing needs of
(50)  society by raising the level of corporate awareness about social issues, such as problems with the economy,
  government regulation, the aging population, and the
  environment. This organization also serves as a resource
  center of information on accomplished women who are
(55)        potential candidates for corporate boards.

1. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree
  with which of the following statements about
  achievement of the "ideal" mentioned in line 14?
  (A) It has only recently become a possibility.
  (B) It would be easier to meet if more CEO's were
     women
  (C) It is very close to being a reality for most corporate
     boards.
  (D) It might affect the quality of directors' service to
     corporations.
  (E) It would be more realizable if CEO's had a more
     extensive range of business experience.

2. According to the passage, the pressure to appoint
  women to corporate boards differs from the pressure to
  employ women in the work force in which of the
  following ways?
  (A) Corporate boards are under less pressure because they
      have such a small number of openings.
  (B) Corporate boards have received less pressure from
      stockholders, consumers, and workers within
      companies to include women on their boards.
  (C) Corporate boards have received less pressure from
     the media and the public to include women on their
     boards.
  (D) Corporations have only recently been pressured to
include women on their boards.
  (E) Corporations are not subject to statutory penalty for
failing to include women on their boards.

3. All of the following are examples of issues that the
  organization described in the last paragraph would be
  likely to advise corporations on EXCEPT
  (A) long-term inflation
  (B) health and safety regulations
  (C) retirement and pension programs
  (D) the energy shortage
  (E) how to develop new markets

4. It can be inferred from the passage that, when seeking to
  appoint new members to a corporation's board, the chair
  traditionally looked for candidates who
  (A) had legal and governmental experience
  (B) had experience dealing with community affairs
  (C) could work easily with other members of the board
  (D) were already involved in establishing policy for that
     corporation
  (E) had influential connections outside the business
     world

5. According to the passage, which of the following is true
  about women outside the business world who are
  currently serving on corporate boards?
  (A) Most do not serve on more than one board.
  (B) A large percentage will eventually work on the staff
     of corporations.
  (C) Most were already known to the chairs of the board
     to which they were appointed.
  (D) A larger percentage are from government and law
     than are from the nonprofit sector.
  (E) Most are less than fifty years old.

6. The passage suggests that corporations of the past differ
  from modern corporations in which of the following
  ways?
  (A) Corporations had greater input on government
     policies affecting the business community.
  (B) Corporations were less responsive to the financial
     needs of their employees.
  (C) The ability of a corporation to keep up with
     changing markets was not a crucial factor in its
     success.
  (D) A corporation's effectiveness in coping with
     community needs was less likely to affect its growth
     and prosperity.
  (E) Corporations were subject to more stringent
     government regulations.

7. Which of the following best describes the organization
  of the passage?
  (A) A problem is described, and then reasons why
     various proposed solutions succeeded or failed are
     discussed.
  (B) A problem is described, and then an advantage of
     resolving it is offered.
  (C) A problem is described, and then reasons for its
     continuing existence are summarized.
  (D) The historical origins of a problem are described,
     and then various measures that have successfully
     resolved it are discussed.
  (E) The causes of a problem are described, and then its
     effects are discussed.

8. It can be inferred from the passage that factors making
  women uniquely valuable members of modern corporate
  boards would include which of the following?
  ﾢ￱. The nature of modern corporations
  ﾢ￲. The increased number of women CEO's
  ﾢ￳. The careers pursued by women currently available to
     serve on corporate boards
  (A) ﾢ￱only
  (B) ﾢ￲only
  (C) ﾢ￳ only
  (D) ﾢ￱and ﾢ￳ only
  (E) ﾢ￱,ﾢ￲, and ﾢ￳


Passage 32
    Increasingly, historians are blaming diseases imported
  from the Old World for the staggering disparity between
  the indigenous population of America in 1492-new esti-
  mates of which soar as high as 100 million, or approxi-
(5) mately one-sixth of the human race at that time-and
  the few million full-blooded Native Americans alive at
  the end of the nineteenth century. There is no doubt that
  chronic disease was an important factor in the precipi-
  tous decline, and it is highly probable that the greatest
(10) killer was epidemic disease, especially as manifested in
   virgin-soil epidemics.
   Virgin-soil epidemics are those in which the popula-
   tions at risk have had no previous contact with the
   diseases that strike them and are therefore immunologi-
(15) cally almost defenseless. That virgin-soil epidemics were
   important in American history is strongly indicated by
   evidence that a number of dangerous maladies-small-
   pox, measles, malaria, yellow fever, and undoubtedly
   several more-were unknown in the pre-Columbian
(20) New World. The effects of their sudden introduction
   are demonstrated in the early chronicles of America,
   which contain reports of horrendous epidemics and steep
   population declines, confirmed in many cases by recent
   quantitative analyses of Spanish tribute records and
(25) other sources. The evidence provided by the documents
   of British and French colonies is not as definitive
   because the conquerors of those areas did not establish
   permanent settlements and begin to keep continuous
   records until the seventeenth century, by which time the
(30)        worst epidemics had probably already taken place.
   Furthermore, the British tended to drive the native
   populations away, rather than enslaving them as the
   Spaniards did, so that the epidemics of British America
   occurred beyond the range of colonists' direct
(35) observation.
     Even so, the surviving records of North America do
  contain references to deadly epidemics among the indige-
   nous population. In 1616-1619 an epidemic, possibly of
   bubonic or pneumonic plague, swept coastal New
(40) England, killing as many as nine out of ten. During the
   1630's smallpox, the disease most fatal to the Native
   American people, eliminated half the population of the
   Huron and Iroquois confederations. In the 1820's fever
   devastated the people of the Columbia River area,
(45) killing eight out of ten of them.
   Unfortunately, the documentation of these and other
   epidemics is slight and frequently unreliable, and it is
   ecessary to supplement what little we do know with
   evidence from recent epidemics among Native Ameri-
(50) cans. For example, in 1952 an outbreak of measles
   among the Native American inhabitants of Ungava Bay.
   Quebec, affected 99 percent of the population and killed
   7 percent, even though some had the benefit of modern
   medicine. Cases such as this demonstrate that even
(55) diseases that are not normally fatal can have devastating
   consequences when they strike an immunologically
   defenseless community.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
  (A) refute a common misconception
  (B) provide support for a hypothesis
  (C) analyze an argument
  (D) suggest a solution to a dilemma
  (E) reconcile opposing viewpoints

2. According to the passage, virgin-soil epidemics can be
  distinguished from other catastrophic outbreaks of
  disease in that virgin-soil epidemics
  (A) recur more frequently than other chronic diseases
  (B) affect a minimum of one-half of a given population
  (C) involve populations with no prior exposure to a
     disease
  (D) usually involve a number of interacting diseases
  (E) are less responsive to medical treatment than are
     other diseases

3. According to the passage, the British colonists
  wereunlike the Spanish colonists in that the British
     colonists
  (A) collected tribute from the native population
  (B) kept records from a very early date
  (C) drove Native Americans off the land
  (D) were unable to provide medical care against  
     epidemic disease
  (E) enslaved the native populations in America

4. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage
  concerning Spanish tribute records?
  (A) They mention only epidemics of smallpox.
  (B) They were instituted in 1492.
  (C) They were being kept prior to the seventeenth
     century.
  (D) They provide quantitative and qualitative evidence
     about Native American populations.
  (E) They prove that certain diseases were unknown in
     the pre-Columbian New World.

5. The author implies which of the following about
  measles?
  (A) It is not usually a fatal disease.
  (B) It ceased to be a problem by the seventeenth century.
  (C) It is the disease most commonly involved in virgin-
     soil epidemics.
  (D) It was not a significant problem in Spanish colonies.
  (E) It affects only those who are immunologically
     defenseless against it.

6. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage   
  about the Native American inhabitants of Ungava Bay?
  (A) They were almost all killed by the 1952 epidemic.
  (B) They were immunologically defenseless against
     measles.
  (C) They were the last native people to be struck by a
     virgin- soil epidemic.
  (D) They did not come into frequent contact with white
     Americans until the twentieth century.
  (E) They had been inoculated against measles.

7. The author mentions the 1952 measles outbreak most
  probably in order to
  (A) demonstrate the impact of modern medicine on
     epidemic disease
  (B) corroborate the documentary evidence of epidemic
     disease in colonial America
  (C) refute allegations of unreliability made against the
     historical record of colonial America
  (D) advocate new research into the continuing problem  
     of epidemic disease
  (E) challenge assumptions about how the statistical
     evidence of epidemics should be interpreted

8. Which of the following, if newly discovered, would
   most seriously weaken the author's argument
   concerning the importance of virgin-soil epidemics in
   the depopulation of Native Americans?
  (A) Evidence setting the pre-Columbian population of
     the New World at only 80 million
  (B) Spanish tribute records showing periodic population
     fluctuations
  (C) Documents detailing sophisticated Native American
     medical procedures
  (D) Fossils indicating Native American cortact with
     smallpox prior to 1492
  (E) Remains of French settlements dating back to the
     sixteenth century


Passage 33
Until recently most astronomers believed that the
  space between the galaxies in our universe was a near-
  perfect vacuum. This orthodox view of the universe is
   now being challenged by astronomers who believe that a
(5) heavy "rain" of gas is falling into many galaxies from
  the supposedly empty space around them. The gas
  apparently condenses into a collection of small stars,
  each a little larger than the planet Jupiter. These stars
  vastly outnumber the other stars in a given galaxy. The
(10) amount of "intergalactic rainfall" into some of these
   galaxies has been enough to double their mass in the
   time since they formed. Scientists have begun to suspect
   that this intergalactic gas is probably a mixture of gases
   left over from the "big bang" when the galaxies were
(15) formed and gas was forced out of galaxies by supernova
   explosions.
    It is well known that when gas is cooled at a constant
  pressure its volume decreases. Thus, the physicist Fabian
  reasoned that as intergalactic gas cools, the cooler gas
(20) shrinks inward toward the center of the galaxy. Mean-
  while its place is taken by hotter intergalactic gas from
  farther out on the edge of the galaxy, which cools as it is
  compressed and flows into the galaxy. The net result is a
  continuous flow of gas, starting as hot gases in inter-
(25) galactic space and ending as a drizzle of cool gas called a
   "cooling flow," falling into the central galaxy.
    A fairly heretical idea in the 1970's, the cooling-flow
   theory gained support when Fabian observed a cluster
   of galaxies in the constellation Perseus and found the
(30) central galaxy, NGC 1275, to be a strange-looking object
   with irregular, thin strands of gas radiating from it.
   According to previous speculation, these strands were
   gases that had been blown out by an explosion in the
   galaxy. Fabian, however, disagreed. Because the strands
(35) of gas radiating from NGC 1275 are visible in optical
  photographs, Fabian suggested that such strands consisted
  not of gas blown out of the galaxy but of cooling flows
  of gas streaming inward. He noted that the wavelengths
  of the radiation emitted by a gas would changes as the
(40) gas cooled, so that as the gas flowed into the galaxy and
  became cooler, it would emit not x-rays, but visible light,
  like that which was captured in the photographs. Fabian's
  hypothesis was supported by Canizares' determination in
  1982 that most of the gas in the Perseus cluster was at a
(45) temperature of 80 million degrees Kelvin, whereas the
  gas immediately surrounding NGC 1275 (the subject of
  the photographs) was at one-tenth this temperature.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
  (A) illustrate a hypothesis about the origin of galaxies
  (B) provide evidence to dispute an accepted theory
     about the evolution of galaxies
  (C) summarize the state of and prospects for research in
     intergalactic astronomy
  (D) report new data on the origins of intergalactic gas
  (E) reconcile opposing views on the formation of
     intergalactic gas

2. The author uses the phrase "orthodox view of the
  universe" (line 3) to refer to the belief that
  (A) the space between the galaxies is devoid of matter
  (B) the space between galaxies is occupied by stars that
     cannot be detected by optical photographs
  (C) galaxies have decreased in mass by half since their
     formation
  (D) galaxies contain stars, each the size of Jupiter, which
      form clusters
  (E) galaxies are being penetrated by gas forced out of
     other galaxies by supernova explosions.

3. It can be inferred from the passage that, if Fabian is
  correct, gas in the peripheral regions of a galaxy cluster
  (A) streams outward into intergalactic space
  (B) is hotter than gas in the central regions of the galaxy
  (C) is composed primarily of gas left over from the big
     bang
  (D) results in the creation of unusually large stars
  (E) expands to increase the size of the galaxy
4. The author of the passage probably mentions Canizares'
  determination in order to
  (A) clarify an ambiguity in Fabian's research findings
  (B) illustrate a generalization about the temperature of
     gas in a galaxy cluster
  (C) introduce a new argument in support of the orthodox
     view of galaxies
  (D) provide support for Fabian's assertions about the
     Perseus galaxies
  (E) provide an alternate point of view concerning the
     movement of gas within a galaxy cluster

5. According to the passage, Fabian believes that gas
  flowing into a central galaxy has which of the following
  characteristics?
  (A) It is one-tenth hotter than it was in the outer regions  
     of the galaxy cluster.
  (B) It emits radiation with wavelengths that change as
     the gas moves toward the center of the galaxy.
  (C) The total amount of radiation emitted diminishes as
     the gas cools.
  (D) It loses 90 percent of its energy as it moves to the
     center of the galaxy.
  (E) It condenses at a rate much slower than the rate of
     decrease in temperature as the gas flows inward.

6. According to the passage, Fabian's theory makes use of      
  which of the following principles?
  (A) Gas emanating from an explosion will be hotter the
      more distant it is from the origin.
  (B) The wavelength of radiation emitted by a gas as it
     cools remains constant.
  (C) If pressure remains constant, the volume of a gas
     will decrease as it is cooled.
  (D) The volume of a gas will increase as the pressure
     increases.
  (E) As gas cools, its density decreases.

7. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
  following is true of Fabian's theory?
  (A) It did not receive approval until Canizares' work
     was published.
  (B) It was not widely accepted in the 1970's.
  (C) It did not receive support initially because
     technology was not available to confirm its tenets.
  (D) It supports earlier speculation that intergalactic gas
was largely the result of explosions outside the
galaxy.
  (E) It was widely challenged until x-ray evidence of gas
     temperatures in NGC 1275 had been presented.


Passage 34

    Kazuko Nakane's history of the early Japanese immi-
  grants to central California's Pajaro Valley focuses on
  the development of farming communities there from
  1890 to 1940. The Issei (first-generation immigrants)
(5) were brought into the Pajaro Valley to raise sugar beets.
  Like Issei laborers in American cities, Japanese men in
  rural areas sought employment via the "boss" system.
  The system comprised three elements: immigrant wage
  laborers; Issei boardinghouses where laborers stayed;
(10) and labor contractors, who gathered workers for a
   particular job and then negotiated a contract between
   workers and employer. This same system was originally
   utilized by the Chinese laborers who had preceded the
   Japanese. A related institution was the "labor club,"
(15)which provided job information and negotiated employ-
   ment contracts and other legal matters, such as the
   rental of land, for Issei who chose to belong and paid an
   annual fee to the cooperative for membership.
   When the local sugar beet industry collapsed in 1902,
(20) the Issei began to lease land from the valley's strawberry
   farmers. The Japanese provided the labor and the crop
   was divided between laborers and landowners. The Issei
   began to operate farms, they began to marry and start
   families, forming an established Japanese American
(30) community. Unfortunately, the Issei's efforts to attain
   agricultural independence were hampered by govern-
   ment restrictions, such as the Alien Land Law of 1913.
   But immigrants could circumvent such exclusionary laws
   by leasing or purchasing land in their American-born
(35) children's names.
     Nakane's case study of one rural Japanese American
  community provides valuable information about the
  lives and experiences of the Isseil. It is, however, too
  particularistic. This limitation derives from Nakane's
(40) methodology-that of oral history-which cannot
   substitute for a broader theoretical or comparative
   perspective. Furture research might well consider two
   issues raised by her study: were the Issei of the Pajaro
  Valley similar to or different from Issei in urban settings,
(45) and what variations existed between rural Japanese
   American communities?

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
  (A) defend a controversial hypothesis presented in a
      history of early Japanese immigrants to Califronia
  (B) dismiss a history of an early Japanese settlement in
     California as narrow and ill constructed
  (C) summarize and critique a history of an early
     Japanese settlement in California
  (D) compare a history of one Japanese American
     community with studies of Japanese settlements
     throughout California
  (E) examine the differences between Japanese and
Chinese immigrants to central California in the
1890's

2. Which of the following best describes a "labor club," as
  defined in the passage?
  (A) An organization to which Issei were compelled to
     belong if they sought employment in the Pajaro
    Valley
  (B) An association whose members included labor
     contractors and landowning "bosses"
  (C) A type of farming corporation set up by Issei who
     had resided in the Pajaro Valley for some time
  (D) A cooperative association whose members were
     dues-paying Japanese laborers
  (E) A social organization to which Japanese laborers and
     their families belonged

3. Based on information in the passage, which of the
  following statements concerning the Alien Land Law of
  1913 is most accurate?
  (A) It excluded American-born citizens of Japanese
     ancestry from landownership.
  (B) It sought to restrict the number of foreign
     immigrants to California.
  (C) It successfully prevented Issei from ever purchasing
     farmland.
  (D) It was applicable to first-generation immigrants but
     not to their American-born children.
  (E) It was passed under pressure from the Pajaro
     Valley's strawberry farmers.

4. Several Issei families join together to purchase a
  strawberry field and the necessary farming equipment.
  Such a situation best exemplifies which of the
  following, as it is described in the passage?
  (A) A typical sharecropping agreement
  (B) A farming corporation
  (C) A "labor club"
  (D) The "boss" system
  (E) Circumvention of the Alien Land Law

5. The passage suggests that which of the following was an
  indirect consequence of the collapse of the sugar beet
  industry in the Pajaro Valley?
  (A) The Issei formed a permanent, family-based
     community.
  (B) Boardinghouses were built to accommodate the
     Issei.
(C) The Issei began to lease land in their children's
names.
  (D) The Issei adopted a labor contract system similar to
     that
      used by Chinese immigrants.
  (E) The Issei suffered a massive dislocation caused by
     unemployment.

6. The author of the passage would most likely agree that
  which of the following, if it had been included in
  Nakane's study, would best remedy the particularistic
   nature of that study?
  (A) A statistical table comparing per capita income of
     Issei wage laborers and sharecroppers in the Pajaro
Valley
   (B) A statistical table showing per capita income of
      Issei in the Pajaro Valley from 1890 to 1940
  (C) A statistical table showing rates of farm ownership
     by Japanese Americans in four central California
     counties from 1890 to 1940
  (D) A discussion of original company documents
     dealing with the Pajaro Valley sugar beet industry at
     the turn of the century
  (E) Transcripts of interviews conducted with members
     of the Pajaro Valley Japanese American community
   who were born in the 1920's and 1930's.

7. It can be inferred from the passage that, when the Issei
  began to lease land from the Valley's strawberry
  farmers, the Issei most probably did which of the
  following?
  (A) They used profits made from selling the strawberry
     crop to hire other Issei.
  (B) They negotiated such agricultural contracts using the
     "boss" system.
  (C) They paid for the use of the land with a share of the
     strawberry crop.
  (D) They earned higher wages than when they raised
     sugar beets.
  (E) They violated the Alien Land Law.


Passage 35

     It can be argued that much consumer dissatisfaction
  with marketing strategies arises from an inability to aim
  advertising at only the likely buyers of a given product.
  There are three groups of consumers who are affected
(5) by the marketing process. First, there is the market
  segment-people who need the commodity in question.
  Second, there is the program target-people in the
  market segment with the "best fit" characteristics for a
  specific product. Lots of people may need trousers, but
(10) only a few qualify as likely buyers of very expensive
  designer trousers. Finally, there is the program audience
  ﾨDall people who are actually exposed to the
  marketing program without regard to whether they need
  or want the product.
(15) These three groups are rarely identical. An exception
  occurs occasionally in cases where customers for a
  particular industrial product may be few and easily iden-
  tifiable. Such customers, all sharing a particular need,
  are likely to form a meaningful target, for example, all
(20)         companies with a particular application of the product
  in question, such as high-speed fillers of bottles at brew-   
  eries. In such circumstances, direct selling (marketing that
   reaches only the program target) is likely to be
   economically justified, and highly specialized trade
(25) media exist to expose members of the program target-
   and only members of the program target-to the
   marketing program.
     Most consumer-goods markets are significantly
   different. Typically, there are many rather than few
(30) potential customers. Each represents a relatively small
   percentage of potential sales. Rarely do members of a
   particular market segment group themselves neatly into
   a meaningful program target. There are substantial
   differences among consumers with similar demographic
(35) characteristics. Even with all the past decade's advances
   in information technology, direct selling of consumer
   goods is rare, and mass marketing-a marketing
   approach that aims at a wide audience-remains the
   only economically feasible mode. Unfortunately, there
(40) are few media that allow the marketer to direct a
   marketing program exclusively to the program target.
   Inevitably, people get exposed to a great deal of
   marketing for products in which they have no interest
   and so they become annoyed.

1. The passage suggests which of the following about
   highly specialized trade media?
  (A) They should be used only when direct selling is not
      economically feasible.
  (B) They can be used to exclude from the program
     audience people who are not part of the program
     target.
  (C) They are used only for very expensive products.
  (D) They are rarely used in the implementation of
      marketing programs for industrial products.
  (E) They are used only when direct selling has not
     reached the appropriate market segment.

2. According to the passage, most consumer-goods
  markets share which of the following characteristics?
  ﾢ￱. Customers who differ significantly from each other
  ﾢ￲. Large numbers of potential customers
  ﾢ￳. Customers who each represent a small percentage of
     potential sales
  (A) ﾢ￱ only
  (B) ﾢ￲ only
  (C) ﾢ￱ and ﾢ￲ only
  (D) ﾢ￲ and ﾢ￳ only
  (E) ﾢ￱,ﾢ￲, and ﾢ￳

3. The passage suggests which of the following about
  direct selling?
  (A) It is used in the marketing of most industrial
     products.
  (B) It is often used in cases where there is a large
    program target.
  (C) It is not economically feasible for most marketing
     programs.
  (D) It is used only for products for which there are many
     potential customers.
  (E) It is less successful at directing a marketing program
     to the target audience than are other marketing
     approaches.

4. The author mentions "trousers" (lines 9 and 11) most
  likely in order to
  (A) make a comparison between the program target and
     the program audience
  (B) emphasize the similarities between the market
     segment and the program target
  (C) provide an example of the way three groups of
     consumers are affected by a marketing program
  (D) clarify the distinction between the market segment
     and the program target
  (E) introduce the concept of the program audience

5. Which of the following best exemplifies the situation
  described in the last two sentences of the passage?
  (A) A product suitable for women age 21-30 is marketed
     at meetings attended only by potential customers.
  (B) A company develops a new product and must
     develop an advertising campaign to create a market  
     for it.
  (C) An idea for a specialized product remains
unexplored because media exposure of the product
to its few potential customers would be too
expensive.
  (D) A new product is developed and marketers collect
     demographic data on potential consumers before
     developing a specific advertising campaign.
  (E) A product suitable for men age 60 and over is
     advertised in a magazine read by adults of all ages.

6. The passage suggests that which of the following is true
  about the marketing of industrial products like those
  discussed in the third paragraph?
  (A) The market segment and program target are
      identical.
  (B) Mass marketing is the only feasible way of
     advertising such products.
  (C) The marketing program cannot be directed
     specifically to the program target.
  (D) More customers would be needed to justify the
      expense of direct selling.
  (E) The program audience would necessarily be made
     up of potential customers, regardless of the
     marketing approach that was used.

7. The passage supports which of the following statements
  about demographic characteristics and marketing?
  (A) Demographic research is of no use in determining
     how successful a product will be with a particular
     group of consumers.
  (B) A program audience is usually composed of people
     with similar demographic characteristics.
  (C) Psychological factors are more important than
     demographic factors in defining a market segments.
  (D) Consumers with similar demographic characteristics
     do not necessarily form a meaningful program
     target.
  (E) Collecting demographic data is the first step that
     marketers take in designing a marketing program.

8. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
  following is true for most consumer-goods markets?
  (A) The program audience is smaller than the market
     segment.
  (B) The program audience and the market segment are
     usually identical.
  (C) The market segment and the program target are
     usually identical.
  (D) The program target is larger than the market
     segment.
  (E) The program target and the program audience are
     not usually identical.


Passage 36
      Protein synthesis begins when the gene encoding a
  protein is activated. The gene's sequence of nucleotides is
  transcribed into a molecule of messenger RNA (mRNA),
  which reproduces the information contained in that
(5) sequence. Transported outside the nucleus to the cyto-
  plasm, the mRNA is translated into the protein it
  encodes by an organelle known as a ribosome, which
  strings together amino acids in the order specified by the
  sequence of elements in the mRNA molecule. Since the
(10) amount of mRNA in a cell determines the amount of the
  corresponding protein, factors affecting the abundance
  of mRNA's play a major part in the normal functioning
  of a cell by appropriately regulating protein synthesis.
  For example, an excess of certain proteins can cause cells
(15) to proliferate abnormally and become cancerous; a lack
   of the protein insulin results in diabetes.
      Biologists once assumed that the variable rates at
   which cells synthesize different mRNA's determine the
   quantities of mRNA's and their corresponding proteins
(20) in a cell. However, recent investigations have shown that
   the concentrations of most mRNA's correlate best, not
   with their synthesis rate, but rather with the equally vari-
   able rates at which cells degrade the different mRNA's
   in their cytoplasm. If a cell degrades both a rapidly and
(25) a slowly synthesized mRNA slowly, both mRNA's will
   accumulate to high levels.
      An important example of this phenomenon is the
  development of red blood cells from their unspecialized
  parent cells in bone marrow. For red blood cells to accu-
(30) mulate sufficient concentrations of hemoglobin (which
   transports oxygen) to carry out their main function, the
   cells' parent cells must simultaneously produce more of
   the constituent proteins of hemoglobin and less of most
   other proteins. To do this, the parent cells halt synthesis
(35) of nonhemoglobin mRNA's in the nucleus and rapidly
   degrade copies of the nonhemoglobin mRNA's remaining
   in the cytoplasm. Halting synthesis of mRNA alone would
   not affect the quantities of proteins synthesized by the  
   mRNA's still existing in the cytoplasm. Biologists now
(40) believe that most cells can regulate protein production
   most efficiently by varying both mRNA synthesis and
   degradation, as developing red cells do, rather than by
   just varying one or the other.

1. The passage is primarily concerned with discussing the
  (A) influence of mRNA concentrations on the
     development of red blood cells
  (B) role of the synthesis and degradation of mRNA in
     cell functioning
  (C) mechanism by which genes are transcribed into
     mRNA
  (D) differences in mRNA concentrations in cell nuclei
     and in the cytoplasm
  (E) way in which mRNA synthesis contributes to the
     onset of diabetes

2. The passage suggests that a biologist who held the view
  described in the first sentence of the second paragraph
  would most probably also have believed which of the
  following?
  (A) The rate of degradation of specific mRNA's has
      little effect on protein concentrations.
  (B) The rate of degradation of specific mRNA's should
      be studied intensively.
  (C) The rates of synthesis and degradation for any given
     mRNA are normally equal.
  (D) Different mRNA's undergo degradation at widely
     varying rates.
  (E) Most mRNA's degrade very rpaidly.
3. Which of the following best describes the relationship
  between the second and third paragraphs of the passage?
  (A) The second paragraph presents arguments in support
     of a new theory and the third paragraph presents
     arguments against that same theory.
  (B) The second paragraph describes a traditional view
     and the third paragraph describes the view that has
     replaced it on the basis of recent investigations.
  (C) The third paragraph describes a specific case of a
     phenomenon that is described generally in the
     second paragraph.
  (D) The third paragraph describes an investigation that
     was undertaken to resolve problems raised by
     phenomena described in the second paragraph.
  (E) Both paragraphs describe in detail specific examples
     of the phenomenon that is introduced in the first
     paragraph.

4. The accumulation of concentrations of hemoglobin in
  red blood cells is mentioned in the passage as an
  example of which of the following?
  (A) The effectiveness of simultaneous variation of the
     rates of synthesis and degradation of mRNA
  (B) The role of the ribosome in enabling a parent cell to
     develop properly into a more specialized form
  (C) The importance of activating the genes for particular
     proteins at the correct moment
  (D) The abnormal proliferation of a protein that
     threatens to make the cell cancerous
  (E) The kind of evidence that biologists relied on for
     support of a view of mRNA synthesis that is now
     considered obsolete

5. To begin to control a disease caused by a protein
  deficiency, the passage suggests that a promising
  experimental treatment would be to administer a drug
  that would reduce
  (A) only the degradation rate for the mRNA of the
     protein involved
  (B) only the synthesis rate for the mRNA of the protein
     involved
  (C) both the synthesis and degradation rates for the
     mRNA of the protein involved
  (D) the incidence of errors in the transcription of
     mRNA's from genetic nucleotide sequences
  (E) the rate of activity of ribosomes in the cytoplasm of
     most cells

6. According to the passage, which of the following best
  describes the current view on the relationship between
  the synthesis and the degradation of mRNA in
  regulating protein synthesis?
  (A) Biologists have recently become convinced that the
     ribosome controls the rates of synthesis and
     degradation of mRNA.
  (B) There is no consensus among biologists as to the
     significance of mRNA degradation in regulating
     protein synthesis.
  (C) The concept of mRNA degradation is so new that
     most biologists still believe that the vital role in
     protein regulation belongs to mRNA synthesis.
  (D) Degradation of mRNA is now considered to be the
     key process and mRNA synthesis is no longer
     believed to play a significant role.
  (E) Degradation of mRNA is now considered to be as
     important as mRNA synthesis has been, and still is,
     believed to be.

7. According to the passage, which of the following can
  happen when protein synthesis is not appropriately
  regulated?
  (A) Diabetes can result from errors that occur when the
     ribosomes translate mRNA into protein.
  (B) Cancer can result from an excess of certain proteins
     and diabetes can result from an insulin deficiency.
  (C) A deficiency of red blood cells can occur if bone
     marrow cells produce too much hemoglobin.
  (D) Cancer can be caused by excessively rapid
     degradation of certain amino acids in the cytoplasm
     of cells.
  (E) Excessive synthesis of one protein can trigger
     increased degradation of mRNA's for other proteins
and create severe protein imbalances.

8. The passage suggests that a biologist who detected high
  levels of two proteins in a certain type of cell would be
  likely to consider which of the following as a possible
  explanation?
  (A) The rate of mRNA degradation for one of the
     proteins increases as this type of cell develops a
     more specialized function.
  (B) The two proteins are most likely constituents of a
     complex substance supporting the cells' specialized
     function.
  (C) The cells are likely to proliferate abnormally and
     possibly become cancerous due to the levels of these
     proteins.
  (D) The mRNA's for both proteins are being degraded
     at a low rate in that type of cell.
  (E) The mRNA's for the two proteins are being
     synthesized at identical rates in that type of cell.

Passage 37

     Japanese firms have achieved the highest levels of
  manufacturing efficiency in the world automobile
  industry. Some observers of Japan have assumed that
  Japanese firms use the same manufacturing equipment
(5) and techniques as United States firms but have bene-
  fited from the unique characteristics of Japanese
  employees and the Japanese culture. However, if this
  were true, then one would expect Japanese auto plants
  in the United States to perform no better than factories
(10) run by United States companies. This is not the case,
  Japanese-run automobile plants located in the United
  States and staffed by local workers have demonstrated
  higher levels of productivity when compared with facto-
  ries owned by United States companies.
(15)  Other observers link high Japanese productivity to
  higher levels of capital investment per worker. But a
  historical perspective leads to a different conclusion.
  When the two top Japanese automobile makers
  matched and then doubled United States productivity
(20) levels in the mid-sixties, capital investment per
   employee was comparable to that of United States
   firms. Furthermore, by the late seventies, the amount of
   fixed assets required to produce one vehicle was
   roughly equivalent in Japan and in the United States.
(25) Since capital investment was not higher in Japan, it had
   to be other factors that led to higher productivity.
     A more fruitful explanation may lie with Japanese
   production techniques. Japanese automobile producers
   did not simply implement conventional processes more
(30) effectively: they made critical changes in United States
   procedures. For instance, the mass-production philos-
   ophy of United States automakers encouraged the
   production of huge lots of cars in order to utilize fully
   expensive, component-specific equipment and to
(35) occupy fully workers who have been trained to execute
   one operation efficiently. Japanese automakers chose to
   make small-lot production feasible by introducing
   several departures from United States practices,
   including the use of flexible equipment that could be
(40) altered easily to do several different production tasks
   and the training of workers in multiple jobs.
   Automakers could schedule the production of different
   components or models on single machines, thereby
   eliminating the need to store the buffer stocks of extra
(45) components that result when specialized equipment
   and workers are kept constantly active.

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
  (A) present the major steps of a process
  (B) clarify an ambiguity
  (C) chronicle a dispute
  (D) correct misconceptions
  (E) defend an accepted approach
2. The author suggests that if the observers of Japan
  mentioned in line 3 were correct, which of the following
  would be the case?
  (A) The equipment used in Japanese automobile plants
     would be different from the equipment used in
     United States plants.
  (B) Japanese workers would be trained to do several
     different production jobs.
  (C) Culture would not have an influence on the
     productivity levels of workers.
  (D) The workers in Japanese-run plants would have
     higher productivity levels regardless of where they
     were located.
  (E) The production levels of Japanese-run plants located   
     in the United States would be equal to those of   
     plants run by United States companies.

3. Which of the following statements concerning the
  productivity levels of automakers can be inferred from
  the passage?
  (A) Prior to the 1960's, the productivity levels of the top
     Japanese automakers were exceeded by those of
     United States automakers.
  (B) The culture of a country has a large effect on the
     productivity levels of its automakers.
  (C) During the late 1970's and early 1980's,  
productivity levels were comparable in Japan and
the United States.
  (D) The greater the number of cars that are produced in  
     a single lot, the higher a plant's productivity level.
  (E) The amount of capital investment made by
     automobile manufacturers in their factories
     determines the level of productivity.

4. According to the passage, which of the following
  statements is true of Japanese automobile workers?
  (A) Their productivity levels did not equal those of
United States automobile workers until the late
seventies.
  (B) Their high efficiency levels are a direct result of
     cultural influences.
  (C) They operate component-specific machinery.
  (D) They are trained to do more than one job.
  (E) They produce larger lots of cars than do workers in
     United States factories.

5. Which of the following best describes the organization
  of the first paragraph?
  (A) A thesis is presented and supporting examples are
     provided.
  (B) Opposing views are presented, classified, and then
     reconciled.
  (C) A fact is stated, and an explanation is advanced and
     then refuted.
  (D) A theory is proposed, considered, and then
     amended.
  (E) An opinion is presented, qualified, and then
     reaffirmed.

6. It can be inferred from the passage that one problem
  associated with the production of huge lots of cars is
  which of the following?
  (A) The need to manufacture flexible machinery and
      equipment
  (B) The need to store extra components not required for
      immediate use
  (C) The need for expensive training programs for
     workers, which emphasize the development of
     facility in several production jobs.
  (D) The need to alter conventional mass-production
      processes
  (E) The need to increase the investment per vehicle in
     order to achieve high productivity levels

7. Which of the following statements is supported by
  information stated in the passage?
  (A) Japanese and United States automakers differ in
     their approach to production processes.
  (B) Japanese automakers have perfected the use of
     single-function equipment.
  (C) Japanese automakers invest more capital per
     employee than do United States automakers.
  (D) United States-owned factories abroad have higher
     production levels than do Japanese owned plants in
     the United States.
  (E) Japanese automakers have benefited from the
     cultural heritage of their workers.

8. With which of the following predictive statement                 
      regarding Japanese automakers would the author
      most likely agree?
  (A) The efficiency levels of the Japanese automakers
     will decline if they become less flexible in their
     approach to production
  (B) Japanese automakers productivity levels double
     during the late 1990's.
  (C) United States automakes will originate net
     production processes before Japanese automakers
     do.
  (D) Japanese automakers will hire fewer workers than
     will United States automakers because each worker
     is required to perform several jobs.
  (E) Japanese automakers will spend less on equipment
     repairs than will United States automakers because
     Japanese equipment can be easily altered.

Passage 38

          It was once believed that the brain was independent
  of metabolic processes occurring elsewhere in the body.
  In recent studies, however, we have discovered that the
  production and release in brain neurons of the neuro-
(5) transmitter serotonin (neurotransmitters are compounds
  that neurons use to transmit signals to other cells)
  depend directly on the food that the body processes.
    Our first studies sought to determine whether the
  increase in serotonin observed in rats given a large injec-
(10)tion of the amino acid tryptophan might also occur after
  rats ate meals that change tryptophan levels in the
  blood. We found that, immediately after the rats began
  to eat, parallel elevations occurred in blood tryptophan,
  brain tryptophan, and brain serotonin levels. These find-
(15) ings suggested that the production and release of sero-
  tonin in brain neurons were normally coupled with
  blood-tryptophan increases. In later studies we found
  that injecting insulin into a rat's bloodstream also caused
  parallel elevations in blood and brain tryptophan levels
(20) and in serotonin levels. We then decided to see whether
  the secretion of the animal's own insulin similarly affected
  serotonin production. We gave the rats a carbohydrate-
   containing meal that we knew would elicit insulin secre-
   tion. As we had hypothesized, the blood tryptophan
(25) level and the concentrations of tryptophan
   serotonin in the brain increased after the meal.
   Surprisingly, however, when we added a large
amount of protein to the meal, brain tryptophan and
   serotonin levels fell. Since protein contains tryptophan,
(30)  why should it depress brain tryptophan levels? The
   answer lies in the mechanism that provides blood tryp-
   tophan to the brain cells. This same mechanism also
   provides the brain cells with other amino acids found in
   protein, such as tyrosine and leucine. The consumption
(35) of protein increases blood concentration of the other
   amino acids much more, proportionately, than it does
   that of tryptophan. The more protein in the meal, the
   lower is the ratio of the resulting blood-tryptophan
   concentration to the concentration of competing amino
(40) acids, and the more slowly is tryptophan provided to
   the brain. Thus the more protein in a meal, the less
   serotonin subsequently produced and released.

1. Which of the following titles best summarizes the
   contents of the passage?
  (A) Neurotransmitters: Their Crucial Function in
     Cellular Communication
  (B) Diet and Survival: An Old Relationship Reexamined
  (C) The Blood Supply and the Brain: A Reciprocal
     Dependence
  (D) Amino Acids and Neurotransmitters: The
     Connection Between Serotonin Levels and Tyrosine
  (E) The Effects of Food Intake on the Production and
     Release of Serotonin: Some Recent Findings

2. According to the passage, the speed with which
  tryptophan is provided to the brain cells of a rat varies
  with the
  (A) amount of protein present in a meal
  (B) concentration of serotonin in the brain before a meal
  (C) concentration of leucine in the blood rather than on
     the concentration of tyrosine in the blood after a
     meal
  (D) concentration of tryptophan in the brain before a
     meal
  (E) number of serotonin-containing neurons present in
     the brain before a meal

3. According to the passage, when the authors began their
  first studies, they were aware that
  (A) they would eventually need to design experiments
     that involved feeding rats high concentrations of
     protein
  (B) tryptophan levels in the blood were difficult to
     monitor with accuracy
  (C) serotonin levels increased after rats were fed meals
     rich in tryptophan
  (D) there were many neurotransmitters whose
     production was dependent on metabolic processes
     elsewhere in the body.
  (E) serotonin levels increased after rats were injected
    with a large amount of tryptophan
4. According to the passage, one reason that the authors
  gave rats carbohydrates was to
  (A) depress the rats' tryptophan levels
  (B) prevent the rats from contracting diseases
  (C) cause the rats to produce insulin
  (D) demonstrate that insulin is the most important
     substance secreted by the body
  (E) compare the effect of carbohydrates with the effect
     of proteins

5. According to the passage, the more protein a rat
  consumes, the lower will be the
  (A) ratio of the rat's blood-tryptophan concentration to
     the amount of serotonin produced and released in the
     rat's brain
  (B) ratio of the rat's blood-tryptophan concentration to
     the concentration in its blood of the other amino
     acids contained in the protein
  (C) ratio of the rat's blood-tyrosine concentration to its
     blood-leucine concentration
  (D) number of neurotransmitters of any kind that the rat
     will produce and release
  (E) number of amino acids the rat's blood will contain

6. The authors' discussion of the "mechanism that provides
  blood tryptophan to the brain cells" (lines 31-32) is
  meant to
  (A) stimulate further research studies
  (B) summarize an area of scientific investigation
  (C) help explain why a particular research finding was
     obtained
  (D) provide supporting evidence for a controversial
     scientific theory
  (E) refute the conclusions of a previously mentioned
     research study

7. According to the passage, an injection of insulin was
  most similar in its effect on rats to an injection of
  (A) tyrosine
  (B) leucine
  (C) blood
  (D) tryptophan
  (E) protein

8. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
  following would be LEAST likely to be a potential
  source of aid to a patient who was not adequately
   producing and releasing serotonin?
  (A) Meals consisting almost exclusively of protein
  (B) Meals consisting almost exclusively of
     carbohydrates
  (C) Meals that would elicit insulin secretion
  (D) Meals that had very low concentrations of tyrosine
  (E) Meals that had very low concentrations of leucine

9. It can be inferred from the passage that the authors
  initially held which of the following hypotheses about
  what would happen when they fed large amounts of
  protein to rats?
  (A) The rats' brain serotonin levels would not decrease.
  (B) The rats' brain tryptophan levels would decrease
  (C) The rats' tyrosine levels would increase less quickly
     than would their leucine levels
  (D) The rats would produce more insulin.
  (E) The rats would produce neurotransmitters other than
     serotonin.


Passage 39
      Historians sometimes forget that history is conunu-
   ally being made and experienced before it is studied,
   interpreted, and read. These latter activities have their
    own history, of course, which may impinge in unex-
(5)  pected ways on public events. It is difficult to predict
   when "new pasts" will overturn established historical
   interpretations and change the course of history.
     In the fall of 1954, for example, C. Vann Woodward
   delivered a lecture series at the University of Virginia
(10) which challenged the prevailling dogma concerning the
   history, continuity, and uniformity of racial segregation
   in the South. He argued that the Jim Crow laws of the
   late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries not only
   codified traditional practice but also were a determined
(15) effort to erase the considerable progress made by Black  
   people during and after Reconstruction in the 1870's.
   This revisionist view of Jim Crow legislation grew in
   Part from the research that Woodward had done for the
   NAACP legal campaign during its preparation for
(20) Brown v. Board of Education. The Supreme Court had
   issued its ruling in this epochal desegregation case a few
   months before Woodward's lectures.
    The lectures were soon published as a book. The
    Strange Career of Jim Crow. Ten years later, in a
(25)         preface to the second revised edition. Woodward
   confessed with ironic modesty that the first edition
   "had begun to suffer under some of the handicaps that
   might be expected in a history of the American Revolu-
   tion published in 1776." That was a bit like hearing
(30)Thomas Paine apologize for the timing of his pamphlet
   Common Sense, which had a comparable impact.
   Although Common Sense also had a mass readership.
   Paine had intended to reach and inspire: he was not a
   historian, and thus not concerned with accuracy or the
(35) dangers of historical anachronism. Yet, like Paine,
   Woodward had an unerring sense of the revolutionary
   moment, and of how historical evidence could under-
   mine the mythological tradition that was crushing the
   dreams of new social possibilities. Martin Luther King,
(40) Jr.. testified to the profound effect of The Strange
   Career of Jim Crow on the civil rights movement by
   praising the book and quoting it frequently.

1. The "new pasts" mentioned in line 6 can best be
   described as the
  (A) occurrence of events extremely similar to past
     events
  (B) history of the activities of studying, interpreting, and
     reading new historical writing
  (C) change in people's understanding of the past due to
     more recent historical writing
  (D) overturning of established historical interpretations
     by politically motivated politicians
  (E) difficulty of predicting when a given historical
     interpretation will be overturned

2. It can be inferred from the passage that the "prevailling
  dogma" (line 10) held that
  (A) Jim Crow laws were passed to give legal status to
     well-established discriminatory practices in the
     South
  (B) Jim Crow laws were passed to establish order and
     uniformity in the discriminatory practices of
     different southern states.
  (C) Jim Crow laws were passed to erase the social gains
     that Black people had achieved since Reconstruction
  (D) the continuity of racial segregation in the South was
     disrupted by passage of Jim Crow laws
  (E) the Jim Crow laws of the late nineteenth and early
     twentieth centuries were passed to reverse the effect
     of earlier Jim Crow laws

3. Which of the following is the best example of writing
  that is likely to be subject to the kinds of "handicaps"
  referred to in line 27?
  (A) A history of an auto manufacturing plant written by      an employee during an autobuying boom
  (B) A critique of a statewide school-desegregation plan
     written by an elementary school teacher in that state
  (C) A newspaper article assessing the historical
     importance of a United States President written
     shortly after the President has taken office
  (D) A scientific paper describing the benefits of a
     certain surgical technique written by the surgeon
     who developed the technique
  (E) Diary entries narrating the events of a battle written
     by a soldier who participated in the battle

4. The passage suggests that C. Vann Woodward and
  Thomas Paine were similar in all of the following ways
  EXCEPT:
  (A) Both had works published in the midst of important
     historical events.
  (B) Both wrote works that enjoyed widespread
     popularity.
  (C) Both exhibited an understanding of the relevance of
      historical evidence to contemporary issues.
  (D) The works of both had a significant effect on events
      following their publication.
  (E) Both were able to set aside worries about historical
     anachronism in order to reach and inspire.
  
5. The attitude of the author of the passage toward the
  work of C. Vann Woodward is best described as one of
  (A) respectful regard
  (B) qualified approbation
  (C) implied skepticism
  (D) pointed criticism
  (E) fervent advocacy

6. Which of the following best describes the new idea
  expressed by C. Vann Woodward in his University of
  Virginia lectures in 1954?
  (A) Southern racial segregation was continuous and
     uniform.
  (B) Black people made considerable progress only after
     Reconstruction.
  (C) Jim Crow legislation was conventional in nature.
  (D) Jim Crow laws did not go as far in codifying
     traditional practice as they might have.
  (E) Jim Crow laws did much more than merely reinforce
     a tradition of segregation.


Passage 40
   Joseph Glarthaar's Forged in Battle is not the first excel-
  lent study of Black soldiers and their White officers in the
  Civil War, but it uses more soldiers' letters and diaries-
  including rare material from Black soldiers-and concen-
(5) rates more intensely on Black-White relations in Black
  regiments than do any of its predecessors. Glathaar's title
  expresses his thesis: loyalty, friendship, and respect among
  White officers and Black soldiers were fostered by the
  mutual dangers they faced in combat.
(10 ) Glarthaar accurately describes the government's discrim-
  inatory treatment of Black soldiers in pay, promotion, medi
  cal care, and job assignments, appropriately emphasizing
  the campaign by Black soldiers and their officers to get the
   opportunity to fight. That chance remained limited through
(15) out the war by army policies that kept most Black units
   serving in rear-echelon assignments and working in labor
   battalions. Thus, while their combat death rate was only
   one-third that of White units, their mortality rate from
   disease, a major killer in his war, was twice as great.
(20) Despite these obstacles, the courage and effectiveness of
   several Black units in combat won increasing respect from
   initially skeptical or hostile White soldiers. As one White
   officer put it, "they have fought their way into the respect
of all the army."
(25) In trying to demonstrate the magnitude of this attitudi-
  nal change, however, Glarthaar seems to exaggerate the
  prewar racism of the White men who became officers in
  Black regiments. "Prior to the war," he writes of these
men, "virtually all of them held powerful racial prejudices."
(30) While perhaps true of those officers who joined Black
  units for promotion or other self-serving motives, this state-
    ment misrepresents the attitudes of the many abolitionists
    who became officers in Black regiments. Having spent
    years fighting against the race prejudice endemic in Ameri-
(35)  can society; they participated eagerly in this military exper-
    iment, which they hoped would help African Americans
        achieve freedom and postwar civil equality. By current
standards of racial egalitarianism, these men's paternalism
toward African Americans was racist. But to call their
(40)  feelings "powerful racial prejudices" is to indulge in
generational chauvinism-to judge past eras by present
standards.

1. The passage as a whole can best be characterized as which of
  the following?
  (A) An evaluation of a scholarly study
  (B) A description of an attitudinal change
  (C) A discussion of an analytical defect
  (D) An analysis of the causes of a phenomenon
  (E) An argument in favor of revising a view

2. According to the author, which of the following is true of
  Glarthaar's Forged in Battle compared with previous studies
  on the same topic?
  (A) It is more reliable and presents a more complete picture
     of the historical events on which it concentrates than do
     previous studies.
  (B) It uses more of a particular kind of source material and
     focuses more closely on a particular aspect of the topic
     than do previous studies.
  (C) It contains some unsupported generalizations, but it
     rightly emphasizes a theme ignored by most previous
     studies.
  (D) It surpasses previous studies on the same topic in that it
     accurately describes conditions often neglected by those
     studies.
  (E) It makes skillful use of supporting evidence to illustrate a
     subtle trend that previous studies have failed to detect.

3. The author implies that the title of Glatthaar's book refers
  specifically to which of the following?
  (A) The sense of pride and accomplishment that Black
      soldiers increasingly felt as a result of their Civil War
      experiences
  (B) The civil equality that African Americans achieved after
     the Civil War, partly as a result of their use of
     organizational skills honed by combat
  (C) The changes in discriminatory army policies that were
      made as a direct result of the performance of Black
      combat units during the Civil War
  (D) The improved interracial relations that were formed by
      the races' facing of common dangers and their waging
      of a common fight during the Civil War
  (E) The standards of racial egalitarianism that came to be
     adopted as a result of White Civil War veterans'
     repudiation of the previous racism

4. The passage mentions which of the following as an
  important theme that receives special emphasis in
  Glarthaar's book?
  (A) The attitudes of abolitionist officers in Black units
  (B) The struggle of Black units to get combat assignments
  (C) The consequences of the poor medical care received by
     Black soldiers
  (D) The motives of officers serving in Black units
  (E) The discrimination that Black soldiers faced when trying
      for promotions

5. The passage suggests that which of the following was true of
  Black units' disease mortality rates in the Civil War?
  (A) They were almost as high as the combat mortality rates
      of White units.
  (B) They resulted in part from the relative inexperience of
      these units when in combat.
  (C) They were especially high because of the nature of these
     units' usual duty assignments.
  (D) They resulted in extremely high overall casualty rates in
     Black combat units.
  (E) They exacerbated the morale problems that were caused
     by the army's discriminatory policies.

6. The author of the passage quotes the White officer in lines
  23-24 primarily in order to provide evidence to support the
  contention that
  (A) virtually all White officers initially had hostile attitudes
      toward Black soldiers
  (B) Black soldiers were often forced to defend themselves
     from physical attacks initiated by soldiers from White
     units
  (C) the combat performance of Black units changed the
     attitudes of White soldiers toward Black soldiers
  (D) White units paid especially careful attention to the
     performance of Black units in battle
  (E) respect in the army as a whole was accorded only to
     those units, whether Black or White, that performed well
     in battle

7. Which of the following best describes the kind of error
  attributed to Glarthaar in lines 25-28?
  (A) Insisting on an unwarranted distinction between two  
     groups of individuals in order to render an argument
     concerning them internally consistent
  (B) Supporting an argument in favor of a given interpretation
     of a situation with evidence that is not particularly
     relevant to the situation
  (C) Presenting a distorted view of the motives of certain
     individuals in order to provide grounds for a negative
     evaluation of their actions
  (D) Describing the conditions prevailing before a given
     event in such a way that the contrast with those
     prevailing after the event appears more striking than it
     actually is
  (E) Asserting that a given event is caused by another event
     merely because the other event occurred before the given
     event occurred

8. Which of the following actions can best be described as
  indulging in "generational chauvinism" (lines 40-41) as that
  practice is defined in the passage?
  (A) Condemning a present-day monarch merely because   
     many monarchs have been tyrannical in the past.
  (B) Clinging to the formal standards of politeness common
     in one's youth to such a degree that any relaxation of
     those standards is intolerable
  (C) Questioning the accuracy of a report written by an
     employee merely because of the employee's gender.
  (D) Deriding the superstitions accepted as "science" in past
     eras without acknowledging the prevalence of irrational
     beliefs today.
  (E) Labeling a nineteenth-century politician as "corrupt"
   for engaging in once-acceptable practices considered
     intolerable today.


Passage 41
  It was once assumed that all living things could be
  divided into two fundamental and exhaustive categories. Multicellular plants and animals, as well as many unicellu-
lar organisms, are eukaryotic-their large, complex cells
(5) have a well-formed nucles and many organelles. On the
  other hand, the true bacteria are prokaryotic cell, which
  are simple and lack a nucleus. The distinction between
  eukaryotes and bacteria, initially defined in terms of
  subcellular structures visible with a microscope, was ulti-
(10) mately carried to the molecular level. Here prokaryotic and
   eukaryotic cells have many features in common. For
  instance, they translate genetic information into proteins
  according to the same type of genetic coding. But even
  where the molecular processes are the same, the details in
(15) the two forms are different and characteristic of the respec-
   tive forms. For example, the amino acid sequences of vari-
   ous enzymes tend to be typically prokaryotic or eukaryotic.
  The differences between the groups and the similarities
  within each group made it seem certain to most biologists
(20)        that the tree of life had only two stems. Moreover, argu-
ments pointing out the extent of both structural and func-
tional differences between eukaryotes and true bacteria
convinced many biologists that the precursors of the
   eukaryotes must have diverged from the common
(25)        ancestor before the bacteria arose.
  Although much of this picture has been sustained by
more recent research, it seems fundamentally wrong in one
respect. Among the bacteria, there are organisms that are
significantly different both from the cells of eukaryotes and
(30) from the true bacteria, and it now appears that there are   
  three stems in the tree of life. New techniques for deter-
mining the molecular sequence of the RNA of organisms
have produced evolutionary information about the degree
to which organisms are related, the time since they diverged
(35) from a common ancestor, and the reconstruction of ances-
   tral versions of genes. These techniques have strongly
   suggested that although the true bacteria indeed form a      
   large coherent group, certain other bacteria, the archaebac-
   teria, which are also prokaryotes and which resemble true
(40) bacteria, represent a distinct evolutionary branch that
   far antedates the common ancestor of all true bacteria.

1. The passage is primarily concerned with
  (A) detailing the evidence that has led most biologists to
     replace the trichotomous picture of living organisms
     with a dichotomous one
  (B) outlining the factors that have contributed to the
     current hypothesis concerning the number of basic
     categories of living organisms
  (C) evaluating experiments that have resulted in proof
     that the prokaryotes are more ancient than had been
     expected.
  (D) summarizing the differences in structure and
     function found among true bacteria, archaebacteria,
     and eukaryotes
  (E) formulating a hypothesis about the mechanisms of
     evolution that resulted in the ancestors of the
     prokaryotes

2. According to the passage, investigations of eukaryotic
   and prokaryotic cells at the molecular level supported
   the conclusion that
  (A) most eukaryotic organisms are unicellular
  (B) complex cells have well-formed nuclei
  (C) prokaryotes and cukaryotes form two fundamental
     categories
  (D) subcellular structures are visible with a microscope
  (E) prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have similar
     enzymes

3. According to the passage, which of the following
  statements about the two-category hypothesis is likely to
  be true?
  (A) It is promising because it explains the presence of true
     bacteria-like organisms such as organelles in
     eukaryotic cells.
  (B) It is promising because it explains why eukaryotic
     cells, unlike prokaryotic cells, tend to form
     multicellular organisms.
  (C) It is flawed because it fails to account for the great
     variety among eukaryotic organisms.
  (D) It is flawed because it fails to account for the
     similarity between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
  (E) It is flawed because it fails to recognize an important
     distinction among prokaryotes.

4. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
  following have recently been compared in order to
  clarify the fundamental classifications of living things?
  (A) The genetic coding in true bacteria and that in other
      prokaryotes
  (B) The organelle structures of archaebacteria, true
      bacteria, and eukaryotes
  (C) The cellular structures of multicellular organisms
      and unicellular organisms
  (D) The molecular sequences in eukaryotic RNA, true
     bacterial RNA, and archaebacterial RNA
  (E) The amino acid sequences in enzymes of various
     eukaryotic species and those of enzymes in
     archaebecterial species

5. If the "new techniques" mentioned in line 31 were
  applied in studies of biological classifications other than
  bacteria, which of the following is most likely?
  (A) Some of those classifications will have to be
     reevaluated.
  (B) Many species of bacteria will be reclassified
  (C) It will be determined that there are four main
     categories of living things rather than three.
  (D) It will be found that true bacteria are much older
     than eukaryotes.
  (E) It will be found that there is a common ancestor of
     the eukaryotes, archaebacteria, and true bacteria.

6. According to the passage, researchers working under the
  two-category hypothesis were correct in thinking that
  (A) prokaryotes form a coherent group
  (B) the common ancestor of all living things had complex
     properties
  (C) eukaryotes are fundamentally different from true bacteria
  (D) true bacteria are just as complex as eukaryotes
  (E) ancestral versions of eukaryotic genes functioned
     differently from their modern counterparts.
   
7. All of the following statements are supported by the passage
  EXCEPT:
  (A) True bacteria form a distinct evolutionary group.
  (B) Archaebacteria are prokaryotes that resemble true
     bacteria.
  (C) True bacteria and eukaryotes employ similar types of
     genetic coding.
  (D) True bacteria and eukaryotes are distinguishable at the
      subcellular level.
  (E) Amino acid sequences of enzymes are uniform for
     eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms.

8. The author's attitude toward the view that living things are
  divided into three categories is best described as one of
  (A) tentative acceptance
  (B) mild skepticism
  (C) limited denial
  (D) studious oriticism
  (E) whole hearted endorsement

Passage 42

    Excess inventory, a massive problem for many busi-
  nesses, has several causes, some of which are unavoidable.
  Overstocks may accumulate through production overruns or
  errors. Certain styles and colors prove unpopular. With
(5) some products-computers and software, toys, and
  books-last year's models are difficult to move even at   
  huge discounts. Occasionally the competition introduces a
  better product. But in many cases the public's buying tastes
  simply change, leaving a manufacturer or distributor with
(10 ) thousands (or millions) of items that the fickle public no
   longer wants.
     One common way to dispose of this merchandise is to
   sell it to a liquidator, who buys as cheaply as possible and
   then resells the merchandise through catalogs, discount
(15) stores, and other outlets. However, liquidators may pay less
   for the merchandise than it cost to make it. Another way to
   dispose of excess inventory is to dump it. The corporation
   takes a straight cost write-off on its taxes and hauls the
   merchandise to a landfill. Although it is hard to believe,
(20) there is a sort of convoluted logic to this approach. It is
   perfectly legal, requires little time or preparation on the
   company's part, and solves the problem quickly. The draw-
   back is the remote possibility of getting caught by the news
   media. Dumping perfectly useful products can turn into a
(25) public relations nightmare. Children living in poverty are
   freezing and XYZ Company has just sent 500 new snow-
   suits to the local dump. Parents of young children are
   barely getting by and QPS Company dumps 1,000 cases of
   disposable diapers because they have slight imperfections.
(30) The managers of these companies are not deliberately
   wasteful; they are simply unaware of all their alternatives.
  In 1976 the Internal Revenue Service provided a tangible
  incentive for businesses to contribute their products to char-
  ity. The new tax law allowed corporations to deduct the
(35)cost of the product donated plus half the difference
  between cost and fair market selling price, with the proviso
  that deductions cannot exceed twice cost. Thus, the federal
  government sanctions-indeed, encourages-an above-cost
  federal tax deduction for companies that donate inventory
  to charity.

1. The author mentions each of the following as a cause of
  excess inventory EXCEPT
  (A) production of too much merchandise
  (B) inaccurate forecasting of buyers' preferences
  (C) unrealistic pricing policies
  (D) products' rapid obsolescence
  (E) availability of a better product

2. The passage suggests that which of the following is a
   kind of product that a liquidator who sells to discount
   stores would be unlikely to wish to acquire?
  (A) Furniture
  (B) Computers
  (C) Kitchen equipment
  (D) Baby-care products
  (E) Children's clothing

3. The passage provides information that supports which of
  the following statements?
  (A) Excess inventory results most often from
      insufficient market analysis by the manufacturer.
  (B) Products with slight manufacturing defects may   
     contribute to excess inventory.
  (C) Few manufacturers have taken advantage of the
     changes in the federal tax laws.
  (D) Manufacturers who dump their excess inventory are     
     often caught and exposed by the news media.
  (E) Most products available in discount stores have
     come from manufacturers' excess-inventory stock.

4. The author cites the examples in lines 25-29 most  probably in order to illustrate
  (A) the fiscal irresponsibility of dumping as a policy for
     dealing with excess inventory
  (B) the waste-management problems that dumping new
     products creates
  (C) the advantages to the manufacturer of dumping as a
     policy
  (D) alternatives to dumping explored by different
     companies
  (E) how the news media could portray dumping to the  
     detriment of the manufacturer's reputation

5. By asserting that manufacturers "are simply unaware"
  (line 31), the author suggests which of the following?
  (A) Manufacturers might donate excess inventory to charity rather than dump it if they knew about the provision in the federal tax code.
  (B) The federal government has failed to provide  
     sufficient encouragement to manufacturers to make
     use of advantageous tax policies.
  (C) Manufacturers who choose to dump excess  
     inventory are not aware of the possible effects on
     their reputation of media coverage of such dumping.
  (D) The manufacturers of products disposed of by  
     dumping are unaware of the needs of those people
     who would find the products useful.
  (E) The manufacturers who dump their excess inventory  
     are not familiar with the employment of liquidators
     to dispose of overstock.

6. The information in the passage suggests that which of  
   the following, if true, would make donating excess inv
   entory to charity less attractive to manufacturers than
   dumping?
  (A) The costs of getting the inventory to the charitable
     destination are greater than the above-cost tax
     deduction.
  (B) The news media give manufacturers' charitable
     contributions the same amount of coverage that they
     give dumping.
  (C) No straight-cost tax benefit can be claimed for items
     that are dumped.
  (D) The fair-market value of an item in excess inventory   
      is 1.5 times its cost.
  (E) Items end up as excess inventory because of a
     change in the public's preferences.

7. Information in the passage suggests that one reason
  manufacturers might take advantage of the tax provision
  mentioned in the last paragraph is that
  (A) there are many kinds of products that cannot be
     legally dumped in a landfill
  (B) liquidators often refuse to handle products with   
     slight imperfections
  (C) the law allows a deduction in excess of the cost of
     manufacturing the product
  (D) media coverage of contributions of excess-inventory
     products to charity is widespread and favorable
  (E) no tax deduction is available for products dumped or
     sold to a liquidator


Passage 43
    Historians of women's labor in the United States at first
  largely disregarded the story of female service workers
  -women earning wages in occupations such as salesclerk.
  domestic servant, and office secretary. These historians
(5) focused instead on factory work, primarily because it
   seemed so different from traditional, unpaid "women's
   work" in the home, and because the underlying economic
   forces of industrialism were presumed to be gender-blind
   and hence emancipatory in effect. Unfortunately, emanci-
(10) pation has been less profound than expected, for not even
   industrial wage labor has escaped continued sex segre-
   gation in the workplace.
To explain this unfinished revolution in the status of
   women, historians have recently begun to emphasize the
( 15) way a prevailing definition of femininity often etermines
   the kinds of work allocated to women, even when such
   allocation is inappropriate to new conditions. For instance,
   early textile-mill entrepreneurs, in justifying women's
   employment in wage labor, made much of the assumption
(20) that women were by nature skillful at detailed tasks and
   patient in carrying out repetitive chores; the mill owners
   thus imported into the new industrial order hoary stereo-
   types associated with the homemaking activities they
   presumed to have been the purview of women. Because
(25) women accepted the more unattractive new industrial tasks
   more readily than did men, such jobs came to be regarded
   as female jobs. And employers, who assumed that women's
   "real" aspirations were for marriage and family life.
   declined to pay women wages commensurate with those of
(30) men. Thus many lower-skilled, lower-paid, less secure jobs
   came to be perceived as "female."
    More remarkable than the origin has been the persistence
  of such sex segregation in twentieth-century industry. Once
  an occupation came to be perceived as "female." employers
(35) showed surprisingly little interest in changing that
  perception, even when higher profits beckoned. And despite
  the urgent need of the United States during the Second
  World War to mobilize its human resources fully, job
  segregation by sex characterized even the most important
40) war industries. Moreover, once the war ended, employers
  quickly returned to men most of the "male" jobs that
  women had been permitted to master.

1. According to the passage, job segregation by sex in the
  United States was
  (A) greatly diminlated by labor mobilization during the
     Second World War
  (B) perpetuated by those textile-mill owners who argued   
     in favor of women's employment in wage labor
  (C) one means by which women achieved greater job
      security
  (D) reluctantly challenged by employers except when
     the economic advantages were obvious
  (E) a constant source of labor unrest in the young textile
     industry

2. According to the passage, historians of women's labor
  focused on factory work as a more promising area of
  research than service-sector work because factory work
  (A) involved the payment of higher wages
  (B) required skill in detailed tasks
  (C) was assumed to be less characterized by sex
     segregation
  (D) was more readily accepted by women than by men
  (E) fitted the economic dynamic of industrialism better
  
3. It can be inferred from the passage that early historians
  of women's labor in the United States paid little
  attention to women's employment in the service sector
  of the economy because
  (A) the extreme variety of these occupations made it
     very difficult to assemble meaningful statistics about
     them
  (B) fewer women found employment in the service
      sector than in factory work
  (C) the wages paid to workers in the service sector were
     much lower than those paid in the industrial sector
  (D) women's employment in the service sector tended to  
     be much more short-term than in factory work
  (E) employment in the service sector seemed to have
     much in common with the unpaid work associated
     with homemaking

4. The passage supports which of the following statements
  about the early mill owners mentioned in the second
  paragraph?
  (A) They hoped that by creating relatively unattractive
     "female" jobs they would discourage women from
      losing interest in marriage and family life.
  (B) They sought to increase the size of the available
     labor force as a means to keep men's to keep men's
     wages low.
  (C) They argued that women were inherently suited to
     do well in particular kinds of factory work.
  (D) They thought that factory work bettered the
     condition of women by emancipating them from
     dependence on income earned by men.
  (E) They felt guilty about disturbing the traditional  
     division of labor in family.

5. It can be inferred from the passage that the "unfinished
     revolution" the author mentions in line 13 refers to
     the
  (A) entry of women into the industrial labor market
  (B) recognition that work done by women as
     homemakers should be compensated at rates
     comparable to those prevailing in the service sector
     of the economy
  (C) development of a new definition of femininity
     unrelated to the economic forces of industrialism
  (D) introduction of equal pay for equal work in all
     professions
  (E) emancipation of women wage earners from gender-
     determined job allocation

6. The passage supports which of the following statements
  about hiring policies in the United States?
  (A) After a crisis many formerly "male" jobs are
     reclassified as "female" jobs.
  (B) Industrial employers generally prefer to hire women
     with previous experience as homemakers.
  (C) Post-Second World War hiring policies caused
     women to lose many of their wartime gains in
     employment opportunity.
  (D) Even war industries during the Second World War
     were reluctant to hire women for factory work.
  (E) The service sector of the economy has proved more
     nearly gender-blind in its hiring policies than has the
     manufacturing sector.

7. Which of the following words best expresses the opinion
  of the author of the passage concerning the notion that
  women are more skillful than men in carrying out
  detailed tasks?
  (A) "patient" (line 21)
  (B) "repetitive" (line 21)
  (C) "hoary" (line 22)
  (D) "homemaking" (line 23)
  (E) "purview" (line 24)

8. Which of the following best describes the relationship of
  the final paragraph to the passage as a whole?
  (A) The central idea is reinforced by the citation of
     evidence drawn from twentieth-century history.
  (B) The central idea is restated in such a way as to form
      a transition to a new topic for discussion.
  (C) The central idea is restated and juxtaposed with
     evidence that might appear to contradic it.
  (D) A partial exception to the generalizations of the
     central idea is dismissed as unimportant.
  (E) Recent history is cited to suggest that the central
     idea's validity is gradually diminishing.


Passage 44

     According to a recent theory, Archean-age gold-quartz
  vein systems were formed over two billion years ago from
  magmatic fluids that originated from molten granitelike
   bodies deep beneath the surface of the Earth. This theory is
(5) contrary to the widely held view that the systems were
   deposited from metamorphic fluids, that is, from fluids that
   formed during the dehydration of wet sedimentary rocks.
   he recently developed theory has considerable practical
   importance. Most of the gold deposits discovered during
(10) the original gold rushes were exposed at the Earth's surface
   and were found because they had shed trails of alluvial
   gold that were easily traced by simple prospecting methods.
   Although these same methods still lead to an occasional
   discovery, most deposits not yet discovered have gone
(15) undetected because they are buried and have no surface
    expression.
     The challenge in exploration is therefore to unravel the
   subsurface geology of an area and pinpoint the position of
   buried minerals. Methods widely used today include
(20) analysis of aerial images that yield a broad geological
   overview; geophysical techniques that provide data on the
   magnetic, electrical, and mineralogical properties of the
   rocks being investigated; and sensitive chemical tests that
   are able to detect the subtle chemical halos that often
(25) envelop mineralization. However, none of these high-
   technology methods are of any value if the sites to which
   they are applied have never mineralized, and to maximize
  the chances of discovery the explorer must therefore pay
  particular attention to selecting the ground formations most
(30) likely to be mineralized. Such ground selection relies to
  varying degrees on conceptual models, which take into
  account theoretical studies of relevant factors.
     These models are constructed primarily from empirical
  observations of known mineral deposits and from theories
35) of ore-forming processes. The explorer uses the models to
  identify those geological features that are critical to the
  formation of the mineralization being modeled, and then
  tries to select areas for exploration that exhibit as many of
  the critical features as possible.

1. The author is primarily concerned with
  (A) advocating a return to an older methodology
  (B) explaining the importance of a recent theory
  (C) enumerating differences between two widely used
     methods
  (D) describing events leading to a discovery
  (E) challenging the assumptions on which a theory is
     based

2. According to the passage, the widely held view of
  Archean- age gold-quartz vein systems is that such
  systems
  (A) were formed from metamorphic fluids
  (B) originated in molten granitelike bodies
  (C) were formed from alluvial deposits
  (D) generally have surface expression
  (E) are not discoverable through chemical tests

3. The passage implies that which of the following steps
  would be the first performed by explorers who wish to
  maximize their chances of discovering gold?
  (A) Surveying several sites known to have been formed
     more than two billion years ago
  (B) Limiting exploration to sites known to have been
     formed from metamorphic fluid.
  (C) Using an appropriate conceptual model to select a
     site for further exploration
  (D) Using geophysical methods to analyze rocks over a
     broad area
  (E) Limiting exploration to sites where alluvial gold has
     previously been found

4. Which of the following statements about discoveries of
   gold deposits is supported by information in the
   passage?
(A) The number of gold discoveries made annually has
increased between the time of the original gold rushes
and the present.
(B) New discoveries of gold deposits are likely to be the
     result of exploration techniques designed to locate  
     buried mineralization.
(C) It is unlikely that newly discovered gold deposits will
ever yield as much as did those deposits discovered
during the original gold rushes.
(D) Modern explorers are divided on the question of the
utility of simple prospecting methods as a source of
new discoveries of gold deposits.
  (E) Models based on the theory that gold originated
     from magmatic fluids have already led to new
     discoveries of gold deposits.

5. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
  following is easiest to detect?
  (A) A gold-quartz vein system originating in magmatic
     fluids
  (B) A gold-quartz vein system originating in
     meamorphic fluids
  (C) A gold deposit that is mixed with granite
  (D) A gold deposit that has shed alluvial gold
  (E) A gold deposit that exhibits chemical halos

6. The theory mentioned in line 1 relates to the conceptual
  models discussed in the passage in which of the
  following ways?
  (A) It may furnish a valid account of ore-forming
     processes, and, hence, can support conceptual
     models that have great practical significance.
  (B) It suggests that certain geological formations, long
     believed to be mineralized, are in fact
     mineralized, thus confirming current conceptual
     models.
  (C) It suggests that there may not be enough similarity
     across Archean-age gold-quartz vein systems to
     warrant the formulation of conceptual models.
  (D) It corrects existing theories about the chemical
     halos of gold deposits, and thus provides a
     basis for correcting current conceptual models.
  (E) It suggests that simple prospecting methods
     still have a higher success rate in the discovery
     of gold deposits than do more modern methods.

7. According to the passage, methods of exploring for gold
  that are widely used today are based on which of the
  following facts?
  (A) Most of the Earth's remaining gold deposits are still
     molten.
  (B) Most of the Earth's remaining gold deposits are
     exposed at the surface.
  (C) Most of the Earth's remaining gold deposits are
     buried and have no surface expression.
  (D) Only one type of gold deposit warrants exploration,
      since the other types of gold deposits are found in
      regions difficult to reach.
  (E) Only one type of gold deposit warrants exploration,
     since the other types of gold deposits are unlikely to
     yield concentrated quantities of gold.

8. It can be inferred from the passage that the efficiency of
  model-based gold exploration depends on which of the
  following?
  ﾢ￱. The closeness of the match between the geological
     features identified by the model as critical and the
     actual geological features of a given area
  ﾢ￲. The degree to which the model chosen relies on
     empirical observation of known mineral deposits
     rather than on theories of ore-forming processes
  ﾢ￳. The degree to which the model chosen is based on
     an accurate description of the events leading to
     mineralization
  (A) ﾢ￱only
  (B) ﾢ￲ only
  (C) ﾢ￱and ﾢ￲ only
  (D) ﾢ￱ and ﾢ￳ only
  (E) ﾢ￱,ﾢ￲ and ﾢ￳


Passage 45
    While there is no blueprint for transforming a largely
  government-controlled economy into a free one, the
  experience of the United Kingdom since 1979 clearly
  shows one approach that works: privatization, in which
(5) state-owned industries are sold to private companies. By
  1979, the total borrowings and losses of state-owned
  industries were running at about t3 billion a year. By
  selling many of these industries, the government has
  decreased these borrowings and losses, gained over t34
(10) billion from the sales, and now receives tax revenues from
  the newly privatized companies. Along with a dramatically
  improved overall economy, the government has been able
  to repay 12.5 percent of the net national debt over a
  two-year period.
(15) In fact, privatization has not only rescued individual
   industries and a whole economy headed for disaster, but
   has also raised the level of performance in every area. At
   British Airways and British Gas, for example, productivity
   per employee has risen by 20 percent. At associated
(20) British Ports, labor disruptions common in the 1970's and
   early 1980's have now virtually disappeared. At British
   Telecom, there is no longer a waiting list-as there always
   was before privatization-to have a telephone installed.
   Part of this improved productivity has come about
(25) because the employees of privatized industries were given
   the opportunity to buy shares in their own companies. They
   responded enthusiastically to the offer of shares; at British
   Aerospace, 89 percent of the eligible work force bought
   shares; at Associated British Ports, 90 percent; and at
(30) British Telecom, 92 percent. When people have a personal       
   stake in something, they think about it, care about it, work
   to make it prosper. At the National Freight Consortium,
   the new employee-owners grew so concerned about their
   company's profits that during wage negotiations they
(35) actually pressed their union to lower its wage demands.
   Some economists have suggested that giving away free
  shares would provide a needed acceleration of the privati-
  zation process. Yet they miss Thomas Paine's point that
"what we obtain too cheap we esteem too lightly." In
(40) order for the far-ranging benefits of individual ownership
  to be achieved by owners, companies, and countries,
  employees and other individuals must make their own
  decisions to buy, and they must commit some of their own
  resources to the choice.

1. According to the passage, all of the following were
  benefits of privatizing state-owned industries in the
  United Kingdom EXCEPT:
  (A) Privatized industries paid taxes to the government.
  (B) The government gained revenue from selling state-
     owned industries.
  (C) The government repaid some of its national debt.
  (D) Profits from industries that were still state-owned
     increased.
  (E) Total borrowings and losses of state-owned
     industries decreased.

2. According to the passage, which of the following
  resulted in increased productivity in companies that
  have been privatized?
  (A) A large number of employees chose to purchase
     shares in their companies.
  (B) Free shares were widely distributed to individual
     shareholders.
  (C) The government ceased to regulate major industries.
  (D) Unions conducted wage negotiations for employees.
  (E) Employee-owners agreed to have their wages
     lowered.

3. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
  considers labor disruptions to be
  (A) an inevitable problem in a weak national economy
  (B) a positive sign of employee concern about a
     company
  (C) a predictor of employee reactions to a company's
     offer to sell shares to them
  (D) a phenomenon found more often in state-owned
     industries than in private companies
  (E) a deterrence to high performance levels in an
     industry

4. The passage supports which of the following statements
  about employees buying shares in their own companies?
  (A) At three different companies, approximately nine
      out of ten of the workers were eligible to buy
      shares in their companies.
  (B) Approximately 90% of the ellgible workers at three
     different companies chose o buy shares in their
     companies.
  (C) The opportunity to buy shares was discouraged by at
      least some labor unions.
  (D) Companies that demonstrated the highest
     productivity were the first to allow their employees
     the opportunity to buy shares.
  (E) Eligibility to buy shares was contingent on
     employees' agreeing to increased work loads.

5. Which of the following statements is most consistent
  with the principle described in lines 30-32?
  (A) A democratic government that decides it is
     inappropriate to own a particular industry has in no
     way abdicated its responsibilities as guardian of the
     public interest.
  (B) The ideal way for a government to protect employee
     interests is to force companies to maintain their
     share of a competitive market without government
     subsidies.
  (C) The failure to harness the power of self-interest is an
     important reason that state-owned industries perform
     poorly.
  (D) Governments that want to implement privatization  
     programs must try to eliminate all resistance to the
     free-market system.
  (E) The individual shareholder will reap only a minute
     share of the gains from whatever sacrifices he or she
     makes to achieve these gains.
6. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage     
  about the privatization process in the United Kingdom?
  (A) It depends to a potentially dangerous degree on
     individual ownership of shares.
  (B) It conforms in its most general outlines to Thomas
     Palne's prescription for business ownership.
  (C) It was originally conceived to include some giving
     away of free shares.
  (D) It has been successful, even though privatization has
     failed in other countries.
  (E) It is taking place more slowly than some economists
     suggest is necessary.

7. The quotation in line 39 is most probably used to
  (A) counter a position that the author of the passage
     believes is incorrect
  (B) state a solution to a problem described in the
      previous sentence
  (C) show how opponents of the viewpoint of the author
     of the passage have supported their arguments
  (D) point out a paradox contained in a controversial
     viewpoint
  (E) present a historical maxim to challenge the principle
     introduced in the third paragraph


Passage 46
     As the economic role of multinational, global corpora-
  tions expands, the international economic environment will
  be shaped increasingly not by governments or international
  institutions, but by the interaction between governments
(5) and global corporations, especially in the United States,
  Europe, and Japan. A significant factor in this shifting
  world economy is the trend toward regional trading biocs
  of nations, which has a potentially large effect on the
  evolution of the world trading system. Two examples of
(10) this trend are the United States-Canada Free Trade
  Agreement (FTA) and Europe 1992, the move by the
  European Community (EC) to dismantle impediments to
  the free flow of goods, servic

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