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我也有这个困惑...
Ron在http://www.manhattanprep.com/gmat/forums/sc-fossils-of-the-arm-t7830.html中解释了这个问题,但我还不是特别懂,他说
n describing a past event that is no longer occurring, we can use either the present perfect or the simple past. the difference between the two is one of semantic meaning:
* the present perfect (has/have VERBed) is used if the event still has a tangible impact or influence on, or relevance to, the present state of affairs.
* the simple past is used if the event does NOT have any tangible impact/influence/relevance in the present.
note that, in many cases, either of these tenses could be used to describe exactly the same event in exactly the same timeframe!
here's an example: imagine that you are talking to a guy, at a bar, who has had 3 marriages. (he is currently divorced.)
if the two of you are actually talking about marriage, he will probably say "i have been married three times".
if the two of you are NOT directly talking about marriage or its consequences -- for instance, he is just enumerating members of his family -- he will probably say "i was married three times".
both of these are correct -- in terms of both grammar and semantics.
in the example at hand, the present perfect probably makes a little bit more sense, since the findings clearly have direct relevance to the situation being discussed at present. however, it would certainly not be incorrect to use the simple past (although that usage would suggest that the findings no longer have relevance, possibly because they have been superseded by some more recent findings).
那说明be dated at这个动作发生在过去吗?为什么呢?
另外我觉得如果理解成这个句子想强调“已经有34m yrs那么久了”可能更好接受点?
求大神们指点 |
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