LSAT-6-3-18，many thanks

18. Those influenced by modern Western science take it for granted that a genuine belief in astrology is proof of a credulous and unscientific mind. Yet, in the past, people of indisputable intellectual and scientific brilliance accepted astrology as a fact. Therefore, there is no scientific basis for rejection astrology.

The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on which one of the following grounds?

(A) A belief can be consistent with the available evidence and accepted scientific theories at one time but not with the accepted evidence and theories of a later time.

(B) Since it is controversial whether astrology has a scientific basis, any argument that attempts to prove that it has will be specious.

(C) Although the conclusion is intended to hold in all cultures, the evidence advanced in its support is drawn only from those cultures strongly influenced by modern Western science.

(D) The implicit assumption that all practitioners of Western science believe in astrology is false.

(E) The fact that there might be legitimate nonscientific reasons for rejecting astrology has been overlooked.

why A? I don't understand the precise meaning of  this question and the answer,could anynone explain it ?many thanks