求教prep-1-sc-8 太费解了。 - ChaseDream

8.(24933-!-item-!-188;#058&001582)

The Achaemenid empire of Persia reached the Indus Valley in the fifth century B.C., bringing the Aramaic script with it, from which was derived both northern and southern Indian alphabets.

(A) the Aramaic script with it, from which was derived both northern and

(B) the Aramaic script with it, and from which deriving both the northern and the

(D) with it the Aramaic script, from which derives both northern and

(E) with it the Aramaic script, and deriving from it both the northern and

正确答案C。不明白后面derive的那个部分。查了几个句子关于derive的用法，基本都是derive A from B.
而注解里面给出的解释是，这个倒装句原本应该是 both the northern and the southern India alphabets derive from the Aramaic script
请问NN，是否是有这种用法呢。读起来感觉真的是很别扭= =

会不会说 both the northern and the southern India alphabets are derived from the Aramaic script 更好呢？
还有为什么不用过去时态呀？是想表明是一个事实还是什么的，可是这个动作不是发生在过去么？
好费解啊好费解...求好心人指点！THX!!!