54. For the writer who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless the titles that indicate superior noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as eighth century, it was not until the twentieth century, when many feudalism institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared.
The statement above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims？
（A） To say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of a nobility is to employ a definition that distort history.
( E ) The prior existence of feudal institutions is a prerequisite for the emergence of a nobility, as defined in the strictest sense of the term.
答案：A
陈向东解释：E 是原文中推理的逆命题，因此不是答案，但为什么逆命题就不是答案呢？
(B) Prior to the twelfth century, the institution of European feudalism functioned without the presence of a noble class.
是不是也可以接受？？
请指教！thks!
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