One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music—whether ritual, dance, or worship—gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.
The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:
(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had.
(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music.
(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces.
(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music.（D）
(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.
为什么D是答案？文中只是说欧洲音乐Sophisticate,没有说most sophisticated怎么样啊，再说unintelligible也是文中没有提到的
E为什么不对呢？
谢谢
复杂，插入语到处乱飞，E应该没有什么问题，they are presented to serve a function other than their original one——》art lose their appeal
原文第一句话说了：One reason is that over time the original function of the music gradually became an aspect of its style。我理解的就是这句话的逆命题。
这题好抽象啊，GWD的题？肯定不是OG的题。
原文其实说了一件事：EM之所以好，是因为在作曲时考虑音乐本身，而不是音乐的功能。
E）很多艺术作品无吸引力，就是因为创作时考虑的是作品的功能而非作品本身。（这不就是原文结论改写吗？？）
D）难以理解的音乐如果脱离其本身的功能而被表现出来的话，这个难懂的音乐就是最精妙的音乐（原文哪里有这么荒谬的描述！！）当然选D
明白了，D是和文中截然相反的，ABC没有提到，也不知道是对是错但反正D是肯定不对的
看题的时候Except没有看见
多谢啦
(这是个LSAT题btw)
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