[求助]cxd逻辑support分类第54题 - ChaseDream

54For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century, when many feudal institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared.

　　The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims？

　　（A） To say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of a nobility is to employ a definition that distorts history.

（B） Prior to the twelfth century, the institution of European feudalism functioned without the presence of a dominant class.

　　（C） The fact that a societal group has a distinct legal status is not in itself sufficient to allow that group to be properly considered a social class.

　　（D） The decline of feudalism in Europe was the only cause of the rise of a European nobility.

　　（E） The prior existence of feudal institutions is a prerequisite for the emergence of a nobility, as defined in the strictest sense of the term。

答案是a 看的不是太明白唉哪位高人帮忙讲下呗